Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following interventions is necessary before insertion of an arterial line into the radial artery?

• A. Ensure that the client does not need surgery
• B. Assess the client's grip strength
• C. Perform an Allen test
• D. Check a serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before inserting an arterial line into the radial artery, it is crucial to perform an Allen test. The Allen test assesses the collateral circulation to the hand by compressing both the radial and ulnar arteries. By occluding the radial artery and releasing the ulnar artery, the nurse can check if the ulnar artery can adequately supply blood to the hand if the radial artery is cannulated. This step ensures that there is adequate circulation to the hand post-insertion of the arterial line. Choice A, ensuring that the client does not need surgery, is not directly related to the insertion of an arterial line and is not a necessary step before the procedure. Choice B, assessing grip strength, is not specific to the vascular status of the hand and does not provide information about the adequacy of collateral circulation. Choice D, checking a serum potassium level, is unrelated to the assessment of radial artery patency and collateral circulation, which are the primary concerns before arterial line insertion.

2. A client is discharged following hospitalization for congestive heart failure. The nurse teaching the family suggests they encourage the client to rest frequently in which of the following positions?

• A. High Fowler's
• B. Supine
• C. Left lateral
• D. Low Fowler's

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is "High Fowler's" position. Sitting in a chair or resting in a bed in a high Fowler's position decreases the cardiac workload and facilitates breathing. This position helps reduce the work of breathing and promotes optimal lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Supine position (choice B) is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for clients with congestive heart failure as it can increase pressure on the heart. Left lateral position (choice C) is commonly used for promoting circulation in clients with certain conditions but is not the most appropriate for congestive heart failure. Low Fowler's position (choice D) is not recommended as it does not provide the same benefits in terms of reducing cardiac workload and easing breathing as the high Fowler's position.

3. Which of the following screening tools have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening for intimate partner violence?

• A. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, and Scream (HITS)
• B. Humiliation, Afraid, Rape, and Kick (HARK)
• C. Slapped, Threatened, and Thrown (STaT)
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above screening tools, including HITS, HARK, and STaT, have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening intimate partner violence, as per the National Preventive Services Task Force. These tools are effective in identifying current or recent intimate partner violence. While the Partner Violence screen may have some predictive value for future intimate partner violence, the question specifically focuses on screening tools with high diagnostic accuracy, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are specific validated screening tools for intimate partner violence, each with its own set of questions that have been shown to be effective in identifying individuals experiencing intimate partner violence. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the most comprehensive and accurate choice for this question.

4. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

• A. Air embolism.
• B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. Expansion of the clot.
• D. Resolution of the clot.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.

5. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

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