Nursing Elites

1. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

• A. Air embolism.
• B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. Expansion of the clot.
• D. Resolution of the clot.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.

2. A client asks a nurse, 'Do you think I should move back home after this procedure?' and the nurse responds by saying, 'Do you think you should move back home?' What type of therapeutic communication is the nurse representing?

• A. Observation
• B. Reflection
• C. Summarizing
• D. Validating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is demonstrating the therapeutic communication technique of reflection. In this scenario, the nurse is redirecting the question back to the client, encouraging them to explore their thoughts and feelings about the situation. Reflection involves restating a statement or question in a way that prompts the client to consider their own answers, fostering self-awareness and insight. Observation involves stating facts, summarizing involves condensing information, and validating involves confirming the client's feelings or experiences, none of which are demonstrated in this interaction.

3. Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?

• A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
• B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
• C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
• D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.

4. An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?

• A. The condition is not caused by the student's competitive swimming schedule.
• B. The student will most likely not require surgical intervention.
• C. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.
• D. The student is not trying to avoid participation in physical education.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.

5. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

• A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
• B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
• C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
• D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.

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