thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke which of the following is a significant complication associated with thro
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.

2. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

3. A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history. G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies. T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term. P0: She has not had any preterm births. A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation. L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.

4. The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.

5. A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most likely suffering from:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heat exhaustion occurs when a person has enough diaphoresis that he becomes dehydrated. Intense sweating can cause both luid and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated heat exhaustion can lead to heat stroke, which results in organ damage, loss of consciousness, or death.

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