NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
- A. Air embolism.
- B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Expansion of the clot.
- D. Resolution of the clot.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
2. A client in a long-term care facility tells the nurse, 'My daughter never visits me.' The nurse responds by telling the client that when her own mother was in a long-term care facility, she found it difficult to visit. This is an example of which communication technique?
- A. Empathy
- B. Self-disclosure
- C. Disapproval
- D. False reassurance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Self-disclosure is a therapeutic communication technique that nurses use to build rapport and trust with clients. By sharing personal experiences, nurses can help clients feel understood and encourage them to open up. In this scenario, the nurse sharing her own struggle with visiting her mother demonstrates self-disclosure. Empathy (choice A) involves understanding and sharing the feelings of another, but in this case, the nurse is sharing her own experience rather than focusing solely on the client's emotions. Disapproval (choice C) and false reassurance (choice D) do not apply in this context as the nurse is not expressing disapproval or giving false hope or comfort.
3. A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
- A. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
- B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
- C. Anxiety attacks due to worries about her baby's health.
- D. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.
4. A client with schizophrenia is taking loxapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the most important to report?
- A. Spasms of the tongue and face
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spasms of the muscles of the tongue, face, neck, and back are indicative of acute dystonia, an extrapyramidal manifestation associated with loxapine use. Acute dystonia is a serious condition that can lead to airway obstruction and respiratory compromise. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting this finding to prevent potential harm to the client. Orthostatic hypotension, dry mouth, and increased appetite are common side effects of antipsychotic medications but are not as immediately life-threatening as acute dystonia. Monitoring and managing these side effects are essential for the client's overall well-being, but they do not pose the same level of urgency as addressing acute dystonia.
5. Which action represents the evaluation stage of the plan of care?
- A. The nurse assigns a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity related to diminished skin circulation
- B. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and asks about symptoms
- C. The nurse determines that the client is not meeting his set outcomes and makes revisions
- D. The nurse discusses the client's health history
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The evaluation stage of the nursing process involves reviewing the assessments, diagnoses, and interventions given to the client and then determining if the client is meeting expected outcomes. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing whether the client is meeting the outcomes set for their care plan and making revisions as needed. Choice A is incorrect as assigning a nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing diagnosis phase, not the evaluation phase. Choice B represents the assessment phase of the nursing process, not the evaluation phase. Choice D involves discussing the client's health history, which is more aligned with the assessment phase rather than the evaluation phase.
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