NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
- A. Air embolism.
- B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Expansion of the clot.
- D. Resolution of the clot.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
2. The nurse is performing discharge teaching for Mrs. S after cardiac angioplasty. Her husband is present for the teaching. While explaining the prescription for antiplatelet medication to use at home, Mrs. S's husband states, 'I don't think I can afford to refill that medication.' What is the most appropriate response of the nurse?
- A. Don't worry, your insurance will cover it.
- B. I'll ask the physician if he can prescribe a medication that is more affordable.
- C. You should apply for Medicare to see if they can help you.
- D. This medication is essential for her care and should be given priority over all others that she is taking.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse in this situation is to offer assistance in exploring more affordable medication options. It is important to address the patient's concerns about medication costs to ensure adherence to the treatment plan. By suggesting to ask the physician if a more affordable alternative is available, the nurse shows understanding and a commitment to helping the patient access necessary medications. Choice A is incorrect because assuming insurance coverage without verifying can lead to false expectations. Choice C is incorrect as Medicare eligibility and assistance may not be applicable in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the financial concern raised by the husband and emphasizes the importance of the medication without offering a practical solution to affordability.
3. A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most likely suffering from:
- A. Malignant hyperthermia
- B. Heat exhaustion
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Heat cramps
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heat exhaustion occurs when a person has enough diaphoresis that he becomes dehydrated. Intense sweating can cause both luid and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated heat exhaustion can lead to heat stroke, which results in organ damage, loss of consciousness, or death.
4. Which is a physical, integumentary risk among the elderly population?
- A. Skin tears
- B. Thickened skin
- C. Thinning toe nails
- D. Less nasal hair
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Skin tears are a physical integumentary risk among the elderly population. As individuals age, their skin becomes thinner and more fragile, making them susceptible to skin tears. Thickened skin, thinning toenails, and reduced nasal hair are common age-related changes but do not pose the same level of risk as skin tears. Thickened skin may provide some protection, thinning toenails are primarily a cosmetic concern, and reduced nasal hair does not typically lead to significant health risks.
5. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?
- A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
- D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$1/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access