Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a function of risk management?

• A. To consider the problems that arise if errors happen and their effects on the healthcare environment
• B. To identify how nursing care responds to specific client problems
• C. To view clients as customers and decide what actions will provide a satisfying healthcare experience
• D. To analyze physician-nurse relationships and determine where collaboration efforts can improve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The function of risk management in healthcare is to assess and address potential risks that could lead to errors and their effects on the healthcare environment. This involves identifying, evaluating, and prioritizing risks to minimize their impact and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the core purpose of risk management in healthcare. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary focus of risk management, which is the proactive management of risks to ensure patient safety and quality care.

2. The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?

• A. Irregular breathing patterns
• B. Minimal heartbeat, dilated pupils
• C. Relaxed muscles, regular breathing, constricted pupils
• D. Euphoria, drowsiness, dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.

3. Your patient has been diagnosed with a left ankle sprain. On the discharge instructions, the physician has prescribed the RICE protocol. This acronym stands for:

• A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• B. Radiology, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• C. Rest, Ice, Cast, Elevation
• D. Radiology, Ice, Cast, Elevation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. This acronym, RICE, is commonly used for the treatment of injuries like an ankle sprain. Rest allows the injured area to heal, Ice helps reduce swelling and pain (20 minutes on each hour while awake), Compression is usually achieved with an elastic bandage to minimize swelling, and Elevation of the foot above the level of the heart assists in reducing swelling and promoting healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they include irrelevant terms like Radiology and Cast, which are not part of the standard treatment protocol for an ankle sprain.

4. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

• A. Air embolism.
• B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. Expansion of the clot.
• D. Resolution of the clot.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.

5. A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

• A. A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.
• B. The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid
• C. Mental deficits are often present with PKU
• D. The effects of PKU are reversible

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic Home Reference).

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