which of the following is a function of risk management
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale

1. Which of the following is a function of risk management?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The function of risk management in healthcare is to assess and address potential risks that could lead to errors and their effects on the healthcare environment. This involves identifying, evaluating, and prioritizing risks to minimize their impact and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the core purpose of risk management in healthcare. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary focus of risk management, which is the proactive management of risks to ensure patient safety and quality care.

2. A complication of osteoporosis is _______________?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Joint deformity is a well-known complication of osteoporosis, leading to structural changes in the joints due to bone loss and fragility. Gouty arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are distinct types of arthritis that are not direct complications of osteoporosis. Dorsiflexion is a movement related to the foot's range of motion and is not a typical complication of osteoporosis.

3. Research participants are involved in a trial that incidentally separates them into two groups. One group receives an intervention, while the other group does not. Both groups are compared for outcomes. What type of research method is this?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A randomized controlled trial is a research method in which participants are randomly assigned to either a treatment or control group. This design helps eliminate bias and allows for the comparison of outcomes between the two groups. In this scenario, where participants are separated into intervention and non-intervention groups for comparison, it aligns with the characteristics of a randomized controlled trial. The key feature distinguishing it from the other options is the random assignment of participants to groups, ensuring that both groups are comparable at the start of the study. Double-blind experiments involve blinding both participants and researchers to treatment allocation, which is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Experimental design refers to a broader category that includes various types of research designs beyond just randomized controlled trials. Repeated measures design involves collecting multiple observations from the same participants over time, which is not the case described in the scenario.

4. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A local sign of infection refers to symptoms that are specific to the area of infection. Swelling, heat, pain, and redness near the infected site are examples of local signs. In the context of infection, swelling occurs due to an accumulation of fluid and immune cells at the site of infection. Rapid pulse, fever, and high white blood count are more systemic responses to infection and not specific local signs. Rapid pulse can indicate systemic distress or sepsis, fever is a systemic response to infection, and high white blood count is a laboratory finding that suggests an immune response but is not a direct sign of infection at a specific site.

5. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

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