NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?
- A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
- B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
- C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
- D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours
Correct answer: A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.
2. A client with right-sided heart failure is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse most likely observe in this client?
- A. Weight loss and vomiting
- B. Coughing and 3+ pitting edema
- C. Muscle cramps and hyperreflexia
- D. Lethargy and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Correct answer: B: Coughing and 3+ pitting edema
Rationale: In right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale), the right side of the heart struggles to pump blood to the lungs. This leads to symptoms related to fluid buildup in the body, such as coughing due to respiratory distress and 3+ pitting edema, commonly seen in the feet and ankles. Weight loss and vomiting (Choice A) are not typical symptoms of right-sided heart failure. Muscle cramps and hyperreflexia (Choice C) are more indicative of electrolyte imbalances or neurological issues. Lethargy and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (Choice D) are commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, not right-sided heart failure.
3. A client is being assisted to lie in the Sims' position. In what position does the nurse arrange the client?
- A. The client lies on his side with the upper leg flexed
- B. The client lies on his back with his head lower than his feet
- C. The client lies on his abdomen with a pillow supporting his head
- D. The client is sitting up at a 90-degree angle
Correct answer: The client lies on his side with the upper leg flexed
Rationale: The Sims' position is a side-lying position used for examinations or comfort. In the Sims' position, the client lies on their side with the upper leg flexed. The abdomen is slightly downward, and the lower arm is positioned behind the body. A pillow can be used to support the leg. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a position with the client lying on their back with the head lower than the feet. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a prone position, not the Sims' position. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a sitting position, not the Sims' position.
4. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
- B. Give the client Cogentin
- C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
- D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level
Correct answer: Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level
Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.
5. Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse?
- A. Standard four-drug therapy for TB
- B. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing
- C. Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH)
- D. Bacille Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine
Correct answer: Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH)
Rationale: The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States for TB and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection.
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