Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

• A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
• B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
• C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
• D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

2. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

3. One of the complications of complete bed rest and immobility is which of the following?

• A. Plantar flexion
• B. Dorsiflexion
• C. Extension contractures
• D. Adduction contractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, is a common complication of complete bed rest and immobility. This condition occurs due to the weakening of muscles that lift the foot, leading to the foot dragging or being unable to clear the ground during walking. Dorsiflexion refers to moving the foot upwards, which is not a typical complication of immobility. Extension contractures involve the inability to fully extend a joint, while adduction contractures refer to the inability to move a limb away from the body. These types of contractures can also occur with immobility, but they are not specifically associated with foot drop.

4. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

• A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
• B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
• C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
• D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.

5. A client is refusing to undergo any more treatments in the hospital and wants to leave against medical advice. When the nurse requests the client to sign an AMA order, the client refuses and leaves. What is the next action of the nurse?

• A. Call security to hold the client until he signs the order
• B. Notify the physician to convince the client to stay
• C. Speak with the client's spouse to persuade him to stay
• D. Allow the client to leave and document the refusal in his chart

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse cannot force the client to stay in the hospital to receive treatment or to sign an AMA order. It is essential to respect the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. While involving security or pressuring the client through the physician or spouse may seem like options, they are not appropriate in this situation. The nurse should allow the client to leave if they are competent to make that decision, document the refusal in the client's chart to ensure all actions are appropriately documented, and follow institutional policies for patients leaving against medical advice.

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