Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

• A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
• B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
• C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
• D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

2. The client is receiving discharge teaching seven (7) days post myocardial infarction and inquires why he must wait six (6) weeks before engaging in sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?

• A. "You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."?
• B. "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe."?
• C. "Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."?
• D. "If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction, there is a risk of cardiac rupture at the site of the infarction for approximately six (6) weeks until scar tissue forms. The advice to wait until the client can climb two flights of stairs without issues is common among healthcare providers as it indicates an adequate level of physical exertion tolerance and suggests a lower risk of complications during sexual activity. Choice A is not specific to the recovery timeline related to sexual activity post-myocardial infarction. Choice C is inappropriate as alcohol consumption should not be recommended before sexual activity. Choice D, though promoting an active lifestyle, does not directly address the safety concerns related to sexual intercourse post-myocardial infarction.

3. Which of the following abides by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?

• A. A nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee because he has left-sided paralysis
• B. A nurse is allowed to have a leave of absence to recover after a back injury
• C. A nurse is mandated to receive 12 weeks off of work after having a baby
• D. A nurse manager must hire a nurse who uses a walker for mobility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in employment practices, ensuring equal opportunities for qualified individuals. Therefore, a nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee simply because the individual has left-sided paralysis. Doing so would be considered discriminatory under the ADA. Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with ADA requirements. Choice B involves medical leave, which can be covered under a different law; choice C refers to maternity leave, which is protected under other regulations; and choice D involves a hiring decision based on a mobility aid, not the individual's qualifications, which does not fall under ADA guidelines.

4. At the beginning of her shift in a long-term care facility, which of the following clients should a nurse check on first?

• A. A 91-year-old man who needs help eating breakfast
• B. An 86-year-old man who has been incontinent in his bed
• C. An 82-year-old woman who needs IV antibiotics
• D. A 75-year-old man who is recovering from an injury and needs an ice pack

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing care in a long-term care facility, the nurse must consider tasks that require their immediate attention and cannot be delegated. Administering IV antibiotics is a critical nursing task that only the nurse can perform, ensuring the timely and correct delivery of medication to the patient. While assisting with breakfast, managing incontinence, and providing an ice pack are important, these tasks can be delegated to other healthcare team members, allowing the nurse to address the client needing IV antibiotics first to ensure effective treatment and patient safety.

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture?

• A. Changes associated with puberty
• B. Driving and staying safe
• C. The health hazards of smoking
• D. Social media influences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticipatory guidance is an educational process that provides information important to a client's situation. When considering a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture, the most suitable anticipatory guidance would be regarding driving and staying safe. This guidance is crucial as it is age-appropriate and relevant to preventing future injuries. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent in this scenario. Changes associated with puberty, health hazards of smoking, and social media influences may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a 16-year-old with an ankle fracture.

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