Nursing Elites

1. Which example best describes a nurse who exhibits moral courage?

• A. A nurse feels angry when a parent refuses important treatment for his child.
• B. A nurse considers seeking help for depression when she feels she cannot meet the needs of her clients in the oncology unit.
• C. A nurse contacts a physician for further orders when he fails to order comfort measures for a client with a terminal illness.
• D. A nurse is frustrated when the laboratory is slow in responding to an order for a stat blood glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Moral courage involves taking action to do what is right, even when there might be negative consequences. The nurse who contacted a physician for further orders acted as a client advocate to seek help, even though she may have faced consequences such as lost time, decreased productivity, or criticism from the physician. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve advocating for a client's needs or challenging a situation that goes against ethical standards. Feeling angry, seeking help for personal issues, or being frustrated with work processes do not necessarily demonstrate moral courage in the context of nursing practice.

2. A client asks a nurse, 'Do you think I should move back home after this procedure?' and the nurse responds by saying, 'Do you think you should move back home?' What type of therapeutic communication is the nurse representing?

• A. Observation
• B. Reflection
• C. Summarizing
• D. Validating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is demonstrating the therapeutic communication technique of reflection. In this scenario, the nurse is redirecting the question back to the client, encouraging them to explore their thoughts and feelings about the situation. Reflection involves restating a statement or question in a way that prompts the client to consider their own answers, fostering self-awareness and insight. Observation involves stating facts, summarizing involves condensing information, and validating involves confirming the client's feelings or experiences, none of which are demonstrated in this interaction.

3. In which of the following examples would informed consent not be required?

• A. A patient is apprehensive about an upcoming surgery and chooses not to learn of the risks involved with the procedure.
• B. A child is rushed to the Emergency Room after falling from a third-story window.
• C. An adult in a coma in a mental health institution with no listed next of kin.
• D. Informed consent is not required in any of the above examples.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In emergency situations where immediate treatment is necessary to prevent further harm or save a life, such as in option B where a child is rushed to the Emergency Room after a fall, informed consent may be waived to provide prompt care. In option A, though the patient is apprehensive about surgery and chooses not to learn the risks, informed consent is not required as it is the patient's right to refuse information. In option C, when an adult is in a coma with no next of kin listed, decisions may be made in the patient's best interest following legal and ethical guidelines. Therefore, informed consent is not needed in any of the scenarios presented.

4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

5. The nurse is discussing the need for early diagnosis and treatment of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) with parents of children suspected of having the condition. Which statement should the nurse include?

• A. Early diagnosis and treatment provide the only means for a cure of ASD.
• B. Early diagnosis and treatment gives your child the best chance of becoming a fully functioning adult.
• C. Early diagnosis and treatment provides the best way to ensure that your child can be admitted to an assisted living facility as an adult.
• D. Early diagnosis and treatment prevent your child from developing any other mental condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include is that early diagnosis and treatment provide the best chance for the child to become a fully functioning adult. It is important to educate parents that while early intervention can improve outcomes for individuals with ASD, it does not offer a cure but helps in managing symptoms and developing necessary skills. Choice A is incorrect as there is currently no cure for ASD. Choice C is inaccurate as early diagnosis and treatment focus on improving the child's quality of life and independence rather than ensuring admission to an assisted living facility. Choice D is incorrect as early diagnosis and treatment of ASD do not prevent the development of other mental health conditions; however, they can help in identifying and managing such conditions early on.

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