Nursing Elites

1. What action by the nurse is appropriate when examining a 16-year-old male teenager?

• A. Discuss health teaching with the teenager to promote wellness.
• B. Ask the parent to step out of the room during the history and physical examination to respect the teenager's privacy.
• C. Use age-appropriate communication when speaking to the teenager to ensure understanding.
• D. Provide feedback that his body is developing normally and discuss the wide variation among teenagers on the rate of growth and development.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the examination of a 16-year-old male teenager, it is essential to provide feedback that his body is developing normally and to discuss the wide variation among teenagers regarding growth and development. This reassures the teenager about his health status and addresses any concerns about physical development. It is important to recognize that adolescents are very conscious of their body image and often compare themselves to their peers, hence the need for such feedback. Asking the parent to step out of the room respects the teenager's privacy and promotes open communication between the nurse and the teenager. Using age-appropriate communication is crucial to ensure that the teenager understands the information provided. Asking the parent to stay in the room may not be ideal as it can inhibit open discussion, and talking to the teenager as if they were a younger child is inappropriate and may undermine their autonomy and understanding.

2. During an initial assessment interview, which statement made by a patient should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care?

• A. "I can always trust my family."?
• B. "It seems like I always have bad luck."?
• C. "You never know who will turn against you."?
• D. "I hear evil voices that tell me to do bad things."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement about hearing evil voices indicates that the patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations, which is a significant symptom that requires immediate attention and intervention. This symptom can be associated with serious mental health conditions like psychosis. Choices A, B, and C are more general statements that do not provide specific information about the patient's mental health status or symptoms, making them less urgent and not as critical for the plan of care compared to the presence of auditory hallucinations.

3. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?

• A. Once a shift
• B. Once an hour
• C. Every 2 hours
• D. Every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.

4. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Listen to a patient's lung sounds for wheezes or rhonchi.
• B. Label specimens obtained during percutaneous lung biopsy.
• C. Instruct a patient about how to use home spirometry testing.
• D. Measure induration at the site of a patient's intradermal skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Labeling specimens obtained during a percutaneous lung biopsy is a task that can be appropriately delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it does not require nursing judgment. UAP can perform this task safely under the supervision of a nurse. Listening to a patient's lung sounds for wheezes or rhonchi, instructing a patient about how to use home spirometry testing, and measuring induration at the site of a patient's intradermal skin test all require nursing judgment and interpretation of findings. These tasks should be performed by licensed nursing personnel to ensure accurate assessment and appropriate intervention.

5. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

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