NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Preview Answers
1. What action by the nurse is appropriate when examining a 16-year-old male teenager?
- A. Discuss health teaching with the teenager to promote wellness.
- B. Ask the parent to step out of the room during the history and physical examination to respect the teenager's privacy.
- C. Use age-appropriate communication when speaking to the teenager to ensure understanding.
- D. Provide feedback that his body is developing normally and discuss the wide variation among teenagers on the rate of growth and development.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the examination of a 16-year-old male teenager, it is essential to provide feedback that his body is developing normally and to discuss the wide variation among teenagers regarding growth and development. This reassures the teenager about his health status and addresses any concerns about physical development. It is important to recognize that adolescents are very conscious of their body image and often compare themselves to their peers, hence the need for such feedback. Asking the parent to step out of the room respects the teenager's privacy and promotes open communication between the nurse and the teenager. Using age-appropriate communication is crucial to ensure that the teenager understands the information provided. Asking the parent to stay in the room may not be ideal as it can inhibit open discussion, and talking to the teenager as if they were a younger child is inappropriate and may undermine their autonomy and understanding.
2. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?
- A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
- B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
- C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
- D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.
3. What are Korotkoff sounds?
- A. Sounds noted during diastole.
- B. The result of the vibration of blood against artery walls while blood pressure readings are being taken.
- C. Sounds only noted by skilled cardiologists.
- D. Distinct sounds which are classified into 6 phases.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Korotkoff sounds are the sounds that occur when blood flows in an artery that has been temporarily compressed during a blood pressure measurement. These sounds result from the vibration of blood against the artery walls as the pressure cuff is released. There are five distinct phases of Korotkoff sounds, which healthcare providers are trained to identify during blood pressure assessment. The correct answer, choice B, accurately describes the nature of Korotkoff sounds and how they are generated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Korotkoff sounds are not specific to diastole, not limited to skilled cardiologists, and categorized into five phases, not six.
4. For a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following nursing actions can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Assessing the patient for jaundice
- B. Providing oral hygiene after a meal
- C. Palpating the abdomen for distention
- D. Assisting the patient to choose the diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing oral hygiene after a meal is an appropriate task to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it falls within their scope of practice. UAP can assist with basic personal care activities like oral hygiene. Assessing the patient for jaundice and palpating the abdomen for distention involve making clinical assessments that require a higher level of education and training, typically performed by licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/LVNs) or registered nurses (RNs). Assisting the patient to choose the diet also requires specialized knowledge and would be more appropriate for a nurse to address, considering the complexity of dietary requirements in cirrhosis.
5. You are ready to wash your patient's face. You would start by washing what area of the face?
- A. The forehead
- B. The eyes
- C. The ears
- D. The cheeks
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When washing a patient's face, it is essential to start by cleaning the eyes. The eye area is considered the priority because moving from an area that can potentially be infected to areas of the face and body that are least able to become infected with a washcloth helps prevent the spread of germs. Washing the forehead, ears, or cheeks before the eyes may risk transferring bacteria to a more sensitive area like the eyes, which could lead to infections or other complications. Therefore, starting with the eyes ensures proper hygiene and reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the patient's face.
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