NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. What is the primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference?
- A. the patient's ability to pay for the costs of their care
- B. how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs
- C. the patient's physical status and condition
- D. the patient's psychosocial status and condition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference is to determine how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs. These meetings involve discussions among healthcare professionals to tailor the care plan to the specific needs and preferences of the patient. Option A is incorrect because financial discussions are generally not the primary focus of patient care meetings. Option C is incorrect as the patient's physical status is usually already known and is not the primary purpose of the meeting. Option D is incorrect as psychosocial aspects, while important, are not the sole focus of the meeting, which is primarily about addressing the patient's overall needs and preferences.
2. An experienced healthcare professional instructs a new colleague on caring for a patient with dyspnea due to a pulmonary fungal infection. Which action by the new colleague indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. Listening to the patient's lung sounds several times during the shift
- B. Placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room
- C. Increasing the oxygen flow rate to maintain oxygen saturation above 90%
- D. Monitoring the patient's serology results to identify the specific infecting organism
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room. Fungal infections are not transmitted from person to person, so isolation procedures like droplet precautions are unnecessary. Listening to the patient's lung sounds, increasing the oxygen flow rate, and monitoring serology results are all appropriate actions in caring for a patient with dyspnea caused by a pulmonary fungal infection.
3. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?
- A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
- B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
- C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
- D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.
4. Which of the following questions is considered open-ended?
- A. What time did you last take your medications?
- B. Are you feeling okay right now?
- C. Please describe your symptoms.
- D. What day are you available for a follow-up appointment?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Please describe your symptoms.' This question is considered open-ended because it encourages the respondent to provide a detailed and descriptive answer, fostering a more elaborate response. Open-ended questions are designed to prompt thoughtful and detailed responses. Choice A is a closed-ended question since it seeks a specific time for the medication intake. Choice B is also closed-ended as it can be answered with a simple 'yes' or 'no,' limiting the response. Choice D is closed-ended as it requests a specific day for the follow-up appointment, restricting the range of possible responses.
5. Which of the following statements best describes substance P?
- A. Substance P decreases a client's sensitivity to pain
- B. Substance P levels are drawn before administration of narcotic analgesics
- C. Substance P is found in the brain and is responsible for pain control and management of depression
- D. Substance P is found in the dorsal horn of the spinal column
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Substance P is a neurotransmitter found in the brain and the dorsal horn of the spinal column, not just in the brain. It is associated with pain transmission and modulation. Substance P is known to cause inflammation, edema, and pain. While it plays a role in pain perception, it does not decrease a client's sensitivity to pain (Choice A), nor are its levels typically drawn before administering narcotic analgesics (Choice B). Although substance P is involved in pain control, it is not responsible for managing depression (Choice C). Therefore, the correct statement is that substance P is found in the dorsal horn of the spinal column.
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