Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates a possible nutritional deficiency?

• A. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen
• B. Presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue
• C. Straight arms and legs
• D. Pale conjunctiva

Correct answer: Pale conjunctiva

Rationale: A client with poor nutritional intake may have pale mucous membranes surrounding the eye, or the conjunctiva. This area should normally be pink, indicating good circulation and a lack of irritation or dryness. Improper nutrition can manifest as numerous signs in the body, including bowed legs, pale mucous membranes, a smooth or beefy tongue, and poor muscle tone. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen is not a sign of nutritional deficiency but rather of excess fat deposition. The presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue is normal and not indicative of a nutritional deficiency. Straight arms and legs are also typical anatomical features and not specifically related to nutritional deficiencies.

2. Which desired outcome written by the nurse is correctly written and measurable?

• A. Client will have a normal bowel pattern by April 2
• B. The client will lose 4 lbs. within the next 2 weeks
• C. The nurse will provide skin care at least 3 times each day
• D. The client will breathe better after resting for 10 minutes

Correct answer: The client will lose 4 lbs. within the next 2 weeks

Rationale: An outcome statement must describe the observable client behavior that should occur in response to the nursing interventions. It consists of a subject, action verb, conditions under which the behavior is to be performed, and the level at which the client will perform the desired behavior. Option B is correctly written and measurable as it includes all the required elements: subject (client), action verb (lose), conditions (within the next 2 weeks), and the level at which the behavior should occur (4 lbs.). Option A lacks the conditions and a specific level, making it not measurable. Option C is a nursing intervention rather than a client goal. Option D does not provide a specific level at which the client should perform the desired behavior, making it not measurable as well.

3. A patient states, “I’m not worth anything. I have negative thoughts about myself. I feel anxious and shaky all the time. Sometimes I feel so sad that I want to go to sleep and never wake up.” Which nursing intervention should have the highest priority?

• A. Self-esteem-building activities
• B. Anxiety self-control measures
• C. Sleep enhancement activities
• D. Suicide precautions

Correct answer: Suicide precautions

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario should be suicide precautions. The patient's statement indicates suicidal ideation, which poses an immediate risk to their safety. By implementing suicide precautions, the nurse can ensure constant monitoring and intervention to prevent any self-harm. While addressing self-esteem, anxiety, and sleep issues are essential, ensuring the patient's safety by prioritizing suicide precautions is crucial. Self-esteem-building activities, anxiety self-control measures, and sleep enhancement activities are important interventions but should follow the immediate concern of preventing harm from suicidal thoughts.

4. What is the primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference?

• A. the patient's ability to pay for the costs of their care
• B. how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs
• C. the patient's physical status and condition
• D. the patient's psychosocial status and condition

Correct answer: how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs

Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference is to determine how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs. These meetings involve discussions among healthcare professionals to tailor the care plan to the specific needs and preferences of the patient. Option A is incorrect because financial discussions are generally not the primary focus of patient care meetings. Option C is incorrect as the patient's physical status is usually already known and is not the primary purpose of the meeting. Option D is incorrect as psychosocial aspects, while important, are not the sole focus of the meeting, which is primarily about addressing the patient's overall needs and preferences.

5. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: Start prophylactic AZT treatment

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

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