NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.
- A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
- B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
- C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
- D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.
Correct answer: replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.
2. The client with multiple sclerosis is being educated by the nurse on exercises and physical activities. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. “I can lift weights and engage in resistance training.”
- B. “I should exercise until I am exhausted.”
- C. “I can incorporate aerobic exercises into my routine.”
- D. “I should perform proper stretching before starting my routine.”
Correct answer: “I should exercise until I am exhausted.”
Rationale: The correct answer is, “I should exercise until I am exhausted.” This statement indicates a need for further teaching because patients with multiple sclerosis should avoid exercising to the point of exhaustion or fatigue. Strenuous physical activity can increase body temperature and potentially worsen symptoms in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Choice A is correct because lifting weights and resistance training can be appropriate exercises for patients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is valid because aerobic exercises can also be beneficial. Choice D is accurate as proper stretching before starting an exercise routine is essential for preventing injuries.
3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:
- A. The client still has sutures at the incision site
- B. The client is able to take a shower
- C. The client must still use an ice pack at the wound site
- D. The client has a temperature of 100.8°F
Correct answer: The client has a temperature of 100.8°F
Rationale: When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8°F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.
4. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?
- A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
- B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
- C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
- D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.
Correct answer: The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.
5. A 45-year-old woman is prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for Parkinson's Disease. The patient is living at home with her daughter. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of ropinirole?
- A. Slurred speech
- B. Sudden dizziness
- C. Mask-like facial expression
- D. Stooped posture
Correct answer: Sudden dizziness
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sudden dizziness.' Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of ropinirole that can lead to an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole belongs to the drug class of dopamine agonists, which mimic dopamine in the brain (Parkinson's Disease is characterized by a lack of dopamine). 'Slurred speech' is not a common side effect of ropinirole. 'Mask-like facial expression' and 'Stooped posture' are more associated with the progression of Parkinson's Disease itself rather than a side effect of ropinirole.
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