Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to change a client's dressing for a burn wound on his foot. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for this process?

• A. Wash the wound with cleanser, rinse, and pat dry
• B. Bind the wound tightly, secure with tape, and elevate the foot
• C. Contact the physician after the dressing change is complete
• D. Provide analgesics for the client after the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When changing the dressing for a burn wound, it is essential to follow appropriate interventions to prevent infection, reduce pain, and support healing. In this scenario, after removing the old dressing, it is crucial to wash the wound gently with a suitable cleanser, rinse the area thoroughly, and then pat it dry. This process helps in maintaining cleanliness, reducing the risk of infection, and providing a conducive environment for healing. Binding the wound tightly (Choice B) can impede circulation and delay healing. Contacting the physician after the dressing change (Choice C) may be necessary in specific situations but is not a standard step in routine dressing changes. Providing analgesics after the procedure (Choice D) is important for pain management but is not directly related to the dressing change itself.

2. During an office visit, the healthcare provider is assessing a patient's skin. What part of the hand and technique would be used to best assess the patient's skin temperature?

• A. Fingertips
• B. Dorsal surface of the hand
• C. Ulnar portion of the hand
• D. Palmar surface of the hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the dorsal surface of the hand. The dorsa (backs) of the hands and fingers are best for determining temperature because the skin is thinner on the dorsal surfaces than on the palms. Fingertips are best for fine, tactile discrimination and not for assessing skin temperature. The ulnar and palmar surfaces of the hands are not as effective for assessing skin temperature as the dorsal surface because they have thicker skin layers.

3. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?

• A. 142/92
• B. 118/72
• C. 120/80
• D. 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.

4. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
• B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
• C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
• D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.

5. A urine pregnancy test:

• A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
• B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

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