Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?

• A. Cleft lip cannot be repaired.
• B. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed by 6 months of age.
• C. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed during the first months of life.
• D. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the BNP (B-type Natriuretic Peptide) value is 615 pg/ml. What would the healthcare provider take as the priority action?

• A. Call for a cardiac evaluation and implement appropriate measures
• B. Check the patient's oxygen saturation
• C. Inform the physician about the elevated BNP level
• D. Encourage the patient to limit physical activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated BNP level is indicative of decreased cardiac output, suggesting potential heart failure. In this scenario, the priority action is to check the patient's oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation assessment is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and respiratory function, which is essential in managing cardiac conditions. Calling for a cardiac evaluation and implementing appropriate measures may be necessary but is not the immediate priority without assessing oxygen saturation. Informing the physician about the elevated BNP level can be important for further management but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Encouraging the patient to limit physical activity might be a consideration later but is not the priority action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour
• B. Periodic crying and irritability
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The concern is the possibility of hyperkalemia, which could occur with continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output since potassium is excreted via the kidneys. It is crucial to monitor urinary output in pediatric patients receiving potassium-containing IV solutions to prevent electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings that require immediate reporting. '3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour' may suggest a need for antiemetic therapy or further assessment of the underlying cause but does not pose an immediate risk like the potential electrolyte imbalance from decreased urinary output. 'Periodic crying and irritability' and 'Vigorous sucking on a pacifier' are common behaviors in infants and are not indicative of a critical condition that requires urgent attention in this scenario.

4. The nurse is counting a client's respiratory rate. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. Which respiratory rate should the nurse document?

• A. 14
• B. 16
• C. 17
• D. 28

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most accurate respiratory rate is the second count obtained by the nurse, which was not interrupted by coughing. The nurse counted eight respirations over 30 seconds, so doubling this count gives a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. This calculation is based on the assumption that the client's breathing pattern remained relatively stable during the two 30-second intervals. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate count obtained without interruptions. Choice B (16) is the correct answer as it reflects the uninterrupted count of respirations by the nurse.

5. Your patient has shown the following signs and symptoms: Feeling very thirsty, large amount of water intake, dryness of the mouth, and urinary frequency. What physical disorder does this patient most likely have?

• A. Diabetes
• B. Angina
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting classic signs of diabetes, such as polydipsia (feeling very thirsty), polyuria (large amount of water intake and urinary frequency), and xerostomia (dryness of the mouth). These symptoms are indicative of high blood glucose levels, which are characteristic of diabetes. Other common signs of diabetes include poor vision, unexplained weight loss, peripheral neuropathy (tingling in the feet and hands), and fatigue. Angina is chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart, not associated with the symptoms described in the patient. Hypertension is high blood pressure, which typically does not present with these specific symptoms related to diabetes. Hypotension is low blood pressure and is not consistent with the signs and symptoms presented by the patient, pointing more towards diabetes as the likely diagnosis.

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