NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?
- A. Cleft lip cannot be repaired.
- B. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed by 6 months of age.
- C. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed during the first months of life.
- D. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.
2. Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?
- A. Place a tourniquet at the level of the elbow
- B. Apply direct pressure to the injury
- C. Administer a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline
- D. Elevate the injured extremity on a pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.
3. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?
- A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
- B. Platelet count of 150,000
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.
4. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the BNP (B-type Natriuretic Peptide) value is 615 pg/ml. What would the healthcare provider take as the priority action?
- A. Call for a cardiac evaluation and implement appropriate measures
- B. Check the patient's oxygen saturation
- C. Inform the physician about the elevated BNP level
- D. Encourage the patient to limit physical activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated BNP level is indicative of decreased cardiac output, suggesting potential heart failure. In this scenario, the priority action is to check the patient's oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation assessment is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and respiratory function, which is essential in managing cardiac conditions. Calling for a cardiac evaluation and implementing appropriate measures may be necessary but is not the immediate priority without assessing oxygen saturation. Informing the physician about the elevated BNP level can be important for further management but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Encouraging the patient to limit physical activity might be a consideration later but is not the priority action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency.
5. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Is there any history of IV drug use?
- B. Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?
- C. Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?
- D. Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in this scenario is whether the patient uses any over-the-counter drugs. The patient's symptoms, negative serologic testing for viral hepatitis, and sudden onset of symptoms point towards toxic hepatitis, which can be triggered by commonly used over-the-counter medications like acetaminophen (Tylenol). Asking about IV drug use is relevant for viral hepatitis, not toxic hepatitis. Inquiring about recent travel to a foreign country is more pertinent to potential exposure to infectious agents causing viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the case.
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