Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?

• A. Cleft lip cannot be repaired.
• B. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed by 6 months of age.
• C. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed during the first months of life.
• D. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.

2. A client is being assessed for risks of a pressure ulcer by a healthcare professional. What is the best description of what may be found with an early pressure ulcer in an African American client?

• A. Skin has a purple/bluish color
• B. Capillary refill is 1 second
• C. Skin appears blanched at the pressure site
• D. Tenting appears when checking skin turgor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for signs of developing pressure ulcers in a client with dark skin, traditional signs like blanching may not be evident. In individuals with darker skin tones, the skin of an early pressure ulcer may present with a purple or bluish hue. This discoloration can be a crucial indicator of compromised circulation and tissue damage. Capillary refill, blanching, and tenting are more commonly used in the assessment of skin integrity and hydration levels but may not be as reliable in individuals with darker skin tones, making the purple/bluish color a key finding in this context.

3. A client is in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) shivering despite being covered with several layers of blankets. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Turn the client to the prone position
• B. Assist the client in breathing deeply
• C. Administer meperidine as ordered
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the post-anesthesia care unit, clients may experience shivering or chills due to a drop in body temperature after surgery. Meperidine (Demerol) can be prescribed to alleviate shivering in cold clients. The prone position (lying face down) and deep breathing exercises are not interventions specifically indicated for addressing shivering due to low body temperature. Therefore, administering meperidine as ordered is the most appropriate action to manage the client's shivering in this scenario.

4. You are caring for Thomas N., a 77-year-old man with edema in his legs and a fluid restriction. You have been assigned to weigh him daily. Based on these symptoms and the care he is receiving, what disorder is he most likely affected by?

• A. Diabetes
• B. Dementia
• C. Congestive heart failure
• D. Contiguous heart disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thomas N.'s symptoms of edema in his legs and fluid restriction point towards congestive heart failure (CHF) rather than dementia or diabetes. In CHF, patients often present with dependent edema in their legs due to excessive blood volume, leading to fluid intake restrictions and a low-salt diet. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in CHF to assess fluid retention or loss. Diabetes primarily affects blood sugar levels, dementia is a cognitive disorder, and 'Contiguous heart disease' is not a recognized medical term, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.

5. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?

• A. Detached Retina
• B. Fovea Centralis
• C. Presbyopia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.

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