a female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control the patient is on npo status pending a diagnostic test the nurse is most concerned about a female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control the patient is on npo status pending a diagnostic test the nurse is most concerned about
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?

Correct answer: Hypoglycemia

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.

2. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

Correct answer: Swelling

Rationale: A local sign of infection refers to symptoms that are specific to the area of infection. Swelling, heat, pain, and redness near the infected site are examples of local signs. In the context of infection, swelling occurs due to an accumulation of fluid and immune cells at the site of infection. Rapid pulse, fever, and high white blood count are more systemic responses to infection and not specific local signs. Rapid pulse can indicate systemic distress or sepsis, fever is a systemic response to infection, and high white blood count is a laboratory finding that suggests an immune response but is not a direct sign of infection at a specific site.

3. Diabetic patients are more prone to ____________ than other people without this chronic disorder.

Correct answer: infection

Rationale: Diabetic patients are more prone to infection than other people without this chronic disorder. Diabetes weakens the immune system and impairs the body's ability to fight off infections, making individuals with diabetes more susceptible to various types of infections. Increased oxygen saturation, low fibrinogen, and constipation are not directly related to diabetes or the increased infection risk associated with the condition. Increased oxygen saturation is actually a positive health indicator, low fibrinogen levels are not a common issue in diabetes, and constipation is not a primary concern when comparing diabetic patients to others without the condition.

4. An adolescent brings a physician’s note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?

Correct answer: C: The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.

5. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

Correct answer: 0.8 mL

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose × Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg × 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.

Similar Questions

Which of the following vital signs can be expected in a child that is afebrile?
A newly admitted patient with major depression has lost 20 pounds over the past month and has suicidal ideation. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week without remission of symptoms. Select the priority nursing diagnosis.
A patient who is displaying the defense mechanism of Compensation would:
Which source of stress would the nurse anticipate in a 5-year-old client?
Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

Access More Features

NCLEX Basic

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access @ $69.99

NCLEX Basic

  • 5,000 Questions and answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
  • 90 days access @ $69.99