Nursing Elites

1. When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a 36-year-old female patient with possible multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should

• A. assess for the presence of chest pain.
• B. inquire about urinary tract problems.
• C. inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration.
• D. ask the patient about any increase in libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a patient for possible multiple sclerosis (MS), it is important to inquire about urinary tract problems as they are common symptoms of the condition, such as incontinence or retention. Chest pain is not typically associated with MS, so assessing for its presence is not a priority. Inspecting the skin for rashes or discoloration is not a typical manifestation of MS. Additionally, a decrease in libido, rather than an increase, is more commonly seen in patients with MS. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to inquire about urinary tract problems.

2. The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old child with glomerulonephritis and is preparing to discuss the plan of care with the parents. In anticipating this encounter, the nurse recognizes that which is a common reaction of parents to the diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?

• A. Fear of the complicated treatment regimen
• B. Anger at the child for requiring hospitalization
• C. Guilt that they did not seek treatment more quickly
• D. Depression that the child may not be able to play sports

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Guilt is a common reaction of parents when their child is diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Parents often blame themselves for not responding promptly to the child's initial symptoms or feel guilty for not seeking treatment sooner, thinking they could have prevented the development of glomerular damage. While fear of a complicated treatment regimen, anger at the child for hospitalization, and depression about the child not playing sports may be valid concerns, they are generally not as commonly observed as the feeling of guilt among parents in this situation.

3. A thirty-five-year-old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Atherosclerosis
• B. Diabetic nephropathy
• C. Autonomic neuropathy
• D. Somatic neuropathy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is autonomic neuropathy. Autonomic neuropathy affects the autonomic nerves, which control various bodily functions including the bladder. In diabetes, it can lead to bladder paralysis, resulting in symptoms like urgency to urinate and difficulty initiating urination. Atherosclerosis (choice A) is a condition involving the hardening and narrowing of arteries, not directly related to the inability to urinate in this context. Diabetic nephropathy (choice B) primarily affects the kidneys, leading to kidney damage, but does not typically cause urinary retention. Somatic neuropathy (choice D) involves damage to sensory nerves, not the autonomic nerves responsible for bladder control, making it less likely to be the cause of the urinary issue described in the question.

4. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:

• A. Increase fluids that are high in protein
• B. Restrict fluids
• C. Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
• D. Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.

5. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer bicarbonate.
• B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
• C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
• D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.

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