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NCLEX RN Exam Preview Answers
1. The nurse is preparing to examine a 4-year-old child. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for this age group?
- A. Explain the procedures briefly to alleviate the child’s anxiety.
- B. Give the child feedback and reassurance during the examination.
- C. Ask the child to undress as needed for the examination.
- D. Perform an examination of the head last.
Correct answer: Give the child feedback and reassurance during the examination.
Rationale: For a 4-year-old child, short and simple explanations should be provided to avoid overwhelming the child. It is important to give feedback and reassurance during the examination to create a comforting environment for the child. Asking the child to undress as needed is appropriate for a thorough examination, as children at this age are usually willing to do so. Performing an examination of the head last allows the child to become more comfortable during the assessment. Therefore, the most appropriate action for a 4-year-old child is to provide feedback and reassurance during the examination, ensuring a positive experience for the child.
2. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?
- A. Once a shift
- B. Once an hour
- C. Every 2 hours
- D. Every 4 hours
Correct answer: Every 2 hours
Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.
3. The nurse is caring for a 36-year-old patient with pancreatic cancer. Which nursing action is the highest priority?
- A. Offer psychological support for depression.
- B. Offer high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices.
- C. Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed.
- D. Teach about the need to avoid scratching any pruritic areas.
Correct answer: Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed. Pain management is the highest priority in this scenario as effective pain control is essential for the patient's overall well-being. Pain relief will not only improve the patient's comfort but also enhance their ability to eat, follow dietary recommendations, and be open to psychological support. Offering psychological support for depression (Choice A) is important but addressing pain takes precedence. While providing high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices (Choice B) is crucial, it is secondary to managing pain. Teaching about the need to avoid scratching pruritic areas (Choice D) is relevant but not the highest priority in this situation where pain management is critical for the patient's quality of life.
4. A client is being monitored for decreased tissue perfusion and increased risk of skin breakdown. Which measure best improves tissue perfusion in this client?
- A. Massaging the reddened areas
- B. Performing range of motion exercises
- C. Administering antithrombotics as ordered
- D. Feeding the client a high-carbohydrate diet
Correct answer: Performing range of motion exercises
Rationale: For a client at risk of impaired skin integrity due to decreased tissue perfusion, improving mobility is crucial to enhance tissue perfusion and prevent skin breakdown. Range of motion exercises are beneficial to increase circulation and prevent complications. Massaging reddened areas may further damage fragile skin. Administering antithrombotics may be necessary for specific conditions but does not directly address tissue perfusion. Feeding a high-carbohydrate diet does not directly improve tissue perfusion in this context.
5. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Administer bicarbonate.
- B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
- C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
- D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).
Correct answer: Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.
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