Nursing Elites

1. You see a sign over Mary Jones' bed when you arrive at 7 am to begin your day shift. The sign says, 'NPO'. Ms. Jones is on a regular diet. The patient asks for milk and some crackers. You _____________.

• A. can give her the milk but not the crackers
• B. can give her both the milk and the crackers
• C. can give her the crackers but not the milk
• D. cannot give her anything to eat or drink

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that you cannot give her anything to eat or drink. 'NPO' is the standard abbreviation for 'nothing by mouth,' indicating that the patient should not consume any food or liquids. It is crucial to adhere to this restriction to prevent any potential harm or complications in the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'NPO' clearly specifies that the patient should not have anything to eat or drink, including milk and crackers. Providing these items could lead to adverse effects, so it is essential to follow the 'NPO' directive strictly.

2. The patient with migraine headaches has a seizure. After the seizure, which action can you delegate to the nursing assistant?

• A. Document the seizure
• B. Perform neurologic checks
• C. Take the patient's vital signs
• D. Restrain the patient for protection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a patient with migraine headaches has a seizure, it is important to assess their vital signs to monitor their condition. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it falls within their scope of practice. Documenting the seizure and performing neurologic checks require a higher level of training and should be done by a nurse or healthcare provider. Restraint should never be used as a first-line intervention after a seizure unless there is an immediate threat to the patient's safety, and it should be done following proper protocols and with appropriate training.

3. What is the correct action regarding thigh pressure when comparing it to arm pressure in an adolescent with high blood pressure?

• A. The popliteal artery should be auscultated to obtain thigh pressure.
• B. The best position to measure thigh pressure is the prone position.
• C. If the blood pressure in the arm is high in an adolescent, then it should be compared with the thigh pressure.
• D. Thigh pressure is generally higher than arm pressure due to the proximity to the heart and the size of the popliteal vessels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When blood pressure measured in the arm is significantly elevated, especially in adolescents and young adults, it is crucial to compare it with thigh pressure to assess for coarctation of the aorta. The popliteal artery, not the femoral artery, should be auscultated for the thigh pressure reading as the femoral artery is closer to the placement of the blood pressure cuff. Generally, thigh pressure is higher than arm pressure; however, if there is coarctation of the artery, arm pressures can be higher than thigh pressures. The preferred position for measuring thigh pressure is the prone position, not supine, with the knee slightly bent to facilitate accurate readings.

4. Which is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection?

• A. Thorough hand hygiene
• B. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care
• C. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions
• D. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thorough hand hygiene is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection as hands are a common source of transmission. Regular and routine hand hygiene helps prevent the movement of potentially infective materials. Wearing gloves and masks is important when providing direct client care to protect both the caregiver and the patient, but it is not as effective as thorough hand hygiene in preventing overall infection spread. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions is necessary for clients with known communicable diseases, but it is not as universally effective in preventing the spread of various infections. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics is not an appropriate measure for controlling the spread of infection as routine use can lead to superinfection and the development of resistant organisms.

5. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

Similar Questions