Nursing Elites

1. A resident brings several electronic devices to a nursing home. One of the devices has a two-pronged plug. What rationale should the nurse provide when explaining why an electrical device must have a three-pronged plug?

• A. Controls stray electrical currents.
• B. Promotes efficient use of electricity.
• C. Shuts off the appliance if there is an electrical surge.
• D. Divides the electricity among the appliances in the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A three-pronged plug functions as a ground to dissipate stray electrical currents. This helps prevent electrical shocks and ensures the safety of the user. Choice B is incorrect because the number of prongs on a plug does not impact the efficient use of electricity. Choice C is incorrect because a three-pronged plug does not shut off the appliance during an electrical surge; that role is typically fulfilled by surge protectors. Choice D is incorrect as a three-pronged plug does not divide electricity among appliances in a room; it primarily serves as a safety measure to handle excess electrical currents.

2. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

3. The nurse is discussing the term subculture with a student nurse. Which statement by the nurse would best describe subculture?

• A. "Fitting as many people as possible into the majority culture."?
• B. "Identifying small groups of people who do not want to be identified with the larger culture."?
• C. "Singling out groups of people who suffer differential and unequal treatment as a result of cultural variations."?
• D. "Recognizing groups of people within a culture with shared characteristics that are not common to all members of the culture."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A subculture refers to a group of people within a larger culture who share distinct beliefs, values, or attitudes that are not universal among all members of the larger culture. Subcultures can emerge based on factors such as ethnicity, religion, education, occupation, age, and gender. The correct answer describes the concept of a subculture accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not capture the essence of a subculture. Fitting people into the majority culture, identifying small groups who distance themselves from the larger culture, or singling out individuals facing differential treatment do not define subculture. Subcultures represent specific groups with shared characteristics that differentiate them from the broader cultural norms.

4. When auscultating the blood pressure of a 25-year-old patient, the nurse notices that the phase I Korotkoff sounds begin at 200 mm Hg. At 100 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds muffle. At 92 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds disappear. How should the nurse record this patient's blood pressure?

• A. 200/92
• B. 200/100
• C. 100/200/92
• D. 200/100/92

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating blood pressure, it is crucial to note the points at which Korotkoff sounds change. In adults, the last audible sound indicates the diastolic pressure. In this case, the Korotkoff sounds muffle at 100 mm Hg and disappear at 92 mm Hg. Therefore, the blood pressure should be recorded as systolic/diastolic, which is 200/92. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct points where the Korotkoff sounds change during blood pressure measurement.

5. Which of the following is recommended by Joint Commission guidelines regarding the use of restraints?

• A. Vest restraints should be used because they are the least restrictive type.
• B. Restraints should be used for 48 hours in non-psychiatric patients.
• C. Restraints should be applied to prevent wandering behavior.
• D. Alternative measures must be attempted first.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When considering the use of restraints, Joint Commission guidelines emphasize the importance of attempting alternative measures before resorting to restraint application. This ensures that a comprehensive assessment is conducted and less restrictive interventions are explored. Using restraints solely based on their perceived level of restrictiveness, as stated in choice A, is not in line with the recommended approach. Restraints should not be used to manage wandering behavior, as indicated in choice C. Additionally, the statement in choice B regarding the duration of restraint use is inaccurate, as restraints on non-psychiatric patients should not exceed 24 hours according to The Joint Commission.

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