Nursing Elites

1. When providing mouth care to a patient in a coma, what should you do to provide good and safe mouth care?

• A. keep the head of the bed up to prevent aspiration
• B. brush the teeth and rinse the mouth with a cup of water
• C. use a special foam swab to brush only the tongue
• D. use a special foam swab to brush the tongue and teeth

Correct answer: use a special foam swab to brush the tongue and teeth

Rationale: When providing mouth care to a patient in a coma, it is crucial to use a special foam swab to brush the tongue and teeth. This method helps maintain good oral hygiene for comatose patients. Special foam swabs are designed to effectively clean all areas of the mouth, including the cheeks and tongue, ensuring thorough care. Using water for mouth care in comatose patients can lead to aspiration, so it is important to avoid this practice. Keeping the head of the bed up alone does not prevent aspiration during mouth care for comatose patients, making choice A incorrect. Merely brushing the tongue (choice C) or using a foam swab only on the tongue (choice B) may not provide the comprehensive mouth care necessary for patients in a coma.

2. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: Start prophylactic AZT treatment

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

3. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for reducing the risk of infection during the post-operative period?

• A. Flush the central line with heparin at least every four hours
• B. Administer narcotic analgesics as needed
• C. Remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory
• D. Order a high-protein diet for the client

Correct answer: Remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory

Rationale: The most appropriate action to reduce the risk of infection during the post-operative period is to remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory. Urinary catheters can serve as a source of bacteria, increasing the risk of infection in the bladder or urethra. By removing the catheter promptly once the client is mobile, the risk of infection can be minimized. Option A, flushing the central line with heparin, is not directly related to reducing urinary tract infections. Option B, administering narcotic analgesics as needed, is important for pain management but does not directly address infection prevention. Option D, ordering a high-protein diet, may be beneficial for wound healing but does not specifically target infection risk reduction in the post-operative period.

4. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: When dehydration is suspected.

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

5. Which of the following scenarios provides an example of a healthcare professional overcoming a barrier to communication?

• A. A healthcare professional uses a visual aid to explain how to conduct a fingerstick glucose test to a patient with visual impairment.
• B. A healthcare professional writes down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired.
• C. A healthcare professional raises their voice when speaking to a patient who does not speak English.
• D. A healthcare professional uses medical jargon while conversing with a minor.

Correct answer: A healthcare professional writes down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired.

Rationale: Overcoming barriers to communication in healthcare involves utilizing methods of communication that are accessible and understandable to the recipient. In the scenario provided, writing down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired is an effective way to ensure clear communication and overcome the obstacle of hearing impairment. This method allows the patient to visually comprehend the information provided. Choice A is incorrect because using a visual aid for a visually impaired patient, not a hearing-impaired patient, would be more appropriate. Choice C is incorrect as raising one's voice does not address the language barrier effectively and may not enhance understanding. Choice D is incorrect as using complex medical terms with a minor may lead to confusion and hinder effective communication.

Similar Questions