Nursing Elites

1. What is the proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen?

• A. Gloves and face mask
• B. Level Three Biocontainment uniforms
• C. Eye protection and shoe covers
• D. Splash shield and face mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When collecting a sputum specimen, it is crucial to protect against potential airborne droplets that may spread disease. The best personal protective equipment for this task includes gloves and a face mask. Gloves help prevent the spread of contaminants through hand contact, while a face mask protects the respiratory tract from inhaling infectious agents. Choice B, Level Three Biocontainment uniforms, is excessive and unnecessary for routine sputum specimen collection. Choice C, eye protection and shoe covers, does not address the specific risks associated with sputum collection. Choice D, splash shield and face mask, provides additional protection that is not typically required for sputum specimen collection, making it less appropriate than gloves and a face mask.

2. You are working the 4 pm to 12 midnight evening shift. You are taking care of a group of patients. The supervising RN identifies 5 patients who get a medication at 'HS'. When will you give this medication?

• A. After the dinner meal
• B. Whenever requested
• C. At the patient's bedtime
• D. Before the end of the shift

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medication at the patient's bedtime. 'HS' is a medical abbreviation that stands for 'hora somni,' which translates to 'at bedtime' or 'at the hours of sleep.' This timing ensures that the medication is administered appropriately to align with the patient's sleep schedule and maximize its effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because giving the medication after dinner, whenever requested, or before the end of the shift may not coincide with the intended purpose of the medication, potentially affecting its efficacy and patient outcomes.

3. Which of the following is the most likely cause of constipation in a client?

• A. Postponing bowel movement when the urge to defecate occurs
• B. Intestinal infection
• C. Antibiotic use
• D. Food allergies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to postpone bowel movement when the urge to defecate occurs. Clients who delay bowel movements by ignoring the urge to defecate or not evacuating promptly, such as in situations where they are not near a bathroom, are at higher risk of developing constipation. This behavior leads to a decrease in bowel movement frequency, slowed intestinal motility, and increased fecal water absorption, resulting in hard, dry stools that are difficult to pass. Intestinal infection (choice B), antibiotic use (choice C), and food allergies (choice D) are less likely to be direct causes of constipation compared to postponing bowel movements.

4. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

5. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.

• A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
• B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
• C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
• D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.

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