Nursing Elites

1. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?

• A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
• C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
• D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.

2. A patient diagnosed with epilepsy is receiving discharge education from a nurse. Which of the following teachings should be emphasized the most?

• A. Avoid consuming alcohol and drugs
• B. Adhere to follow-up appointments with the neurologist, physician, or other healthcare provider as directed
• C. Continue taking anticonvulsants, even if seizures have ceased
• D. Wear a medical alert bracelet or carry an ID card indicating epilepsy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical teaching that the nurse should stress to a patient with epilepsy is to continue taking anticonvulsants even if seizures have stopped. Suddenly stopping antiepileptic drugs can lead to seizures and an increased risk of status epilepticus, a life-threatening condition. Choice A, advising to avoid alcohol and drugs, is important but not as crucial as maintaining anticonvulsant therapy. Choice B, emphasizing follow-up appointments, is essential but ensuring medication compliance is more critical to prevent seizure recurrence. Choice D, wearing a medical alert bracelet, is important for emergency identification but does not directly impact the patient's immediate safety like medication adherence does.

3. A newborn has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. In discussing the condition and treatment with the family, the nurse should emphasize:

• A. They can expect the child will be mentally retarded.
• B. Administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems.
• C. This rare problem is always hereditary.
• D. Physical growth/development will be delayed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems. In newborns diagnosed with hypothyroidism, early identification and continuous treatment with hormone replacement can correct this condition effectively. Choice A is incorrect as it uses outdated and inappropriate language (mentally retarded) and does not reflect modern understanding of conditions. Choice C is incorrect because while some cases of hypothyroidism can be hereditary, it is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect as physical growth and development can be affected by hypothyroidism, but the critical emphasis should be on the importance of administering thyroid hormone to prevent complications and support normal growth and development.

4. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?

• A. Detached Retina
• B. Fovea Centralis
• C. Presbyopia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.

5. A client is admitted for a head injury. His body is lying in an abnormal position and the physician states he is exhibiting decorticate posturing. Based on this assessment, the nurse can expect to find the client with:

• A. The legs extended and rotated internally; the elbow, wrists, and fingers flexed
• B. The legs pulled toward the chest; the head bent back at a 30-degree angle
• C. The back arched; the arms and legs extended and rigid
• D. The legs extended and rotated externally; the head turned to the right or the left

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Decorticate posturing is indicative of an injury to the corticospinal tract, resulting in abnormal posturing. It may occur spontaneously or in response to stimulation. This posture involves the legs being extended and rotated internally, while the elbows, wrists, and fingers are flexed inward. Choice A is correct because it accurately describes the expected positioning associated with decorticate posturing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B describes a different type of posturing known as opisthotonos. Choice C describes an exaggerated arching of the back, which is not characteristic of decorticate posturing. Choice D describes a different type of posturing with external rotation of the legs and head turning to the side, not consistent with decorticate posturing.

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