NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?
- A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
- C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
- D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.
2. What drives respiration in a patient with advanced chronic respiratory failure?
- A. Hypoxemia
- B. Hypocapnia
- C. Hypercapnia
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure, such as those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the respiratory drive shifts from being primarily stimulated by high levels of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) to being driven by low oxygen levels (hypoxemia). This shift is due to the body's adaptation to chronic respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia. As a result, hypoxemia becomes the primary stimulus for respiration in these patients. Hypocapnia, a low level of carbon dioxide, is not a common driver of respiration in patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure. Therefore, the correct answer is hypoxemia.
3. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Turn the patient to his/her side
- C. Call the physician
- D. Suction the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.
4. A 24-year-old female contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, what would serologic testing most likely reveal?
- A. antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV).
- B. hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).
- C. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG).
- D. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.
5. What intervention should the nurse implement while a client is having a grand mal seizure?
- A. Open the jaw and place a bite block between the teeth
- B. Try to place the client on his side
- C. Restrain the client to prevent injury
- D. Place pillows around the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the client is at risk of injury due to severe, involuntary muscle spasms and contractions. It is crucial for the nurse to avoid restraining the client or inserting objects into their mouth, as these actions may lead to further harm. Placing the client on their side can help facilitate the drainage of oral secretions and assist in maintaining an open airway, reducing the risk of aspiration. Restraint should be avoided as it can exacerbate muscle contractions and increase the risk of injury. Placing pillows around the client may not provide adequate support or protection during the seizure, making it a less effective intervention compared to positioning the client on their side.
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