Nursing Elites

1. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?

• A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
• C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
• D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

• A. Borrelia burgdorferi
• B. Streptococcus pyogenes
• C. Bacillus anthracis
• D. Enterococcus faecalis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lyme disease, the most common vector-borne disease in the United States, is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with strep throat and other infections, not Lyme disease. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, a separate infectious disease. Enterococcus faecalis is more commonly linked to urinary tract infections and other healthcare-associated infections, not Lyme disease.

3. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. Systemic sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to palpate and percuss a patient's abdomen as part of the assessment process. Which of these findings would cause the healthcare professional to immediately discontinue this part of the assessment?

• A. The patient states, 'That sounds like it might hurt me.'
• B. There is a pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen.
• C. The patient has black, tarry stools and anemia.
• D. The patient has had an endoscopic procedure two days prior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen is indicative of a life-threatening aortic aneurysm. Palpating or percussing such an area can potentially cause the aneurysm to rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding and endangering the patient's life. Therefore, the healthcare professional should immediately discontinue the assessment to prevent any harm.\nChoice A is incorrect because the patient expressing concerns about the procedure does not necessarily indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C describes symptoms that should be further investigated but do not pose an immediate threat during abdominal assessment. Choice D, a prior endoscopic procedure, is not a contraindication for palpation or percussion of the abdomen unless there are specific complications or conditions related to the procedure that would require caution.

5. An infant has just returned to the nursing unit after surgical repair of a cleft lip on the right side. The nurse should place the infant in which best position at this time?

• A. Prone position
• B. On the stomach
• C. Left lateral position
• D. Right lateral position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After surgical repair of a cleft lip on the right side, the nurse should position the infant carefully to ensure comfort and prevent complications. Placing the infant in the prone position or on the stomach is not recommended as it may cause rubbing of the surgical site against the mattress. The optimal position for the infant is the left lateral position, away from the surgical repair site, to minimize the risk of trauma. Placing the infant on the right lateral position would be contraindicated as it is on the side of the repair. Additionally, positioning the infant upright on the back can help prevent airway obstruction by secretions, blood, or the tongue. Therefore, the correct choice is to place the infant in the left lateral position to promote safety and comfort post cleft lip surgery.

Similar Questions