NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?
- A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
- C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
- D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.
2. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient taking lithium for schizoaffective disorder. The lab results show that the blood lithium value is 1.7 mcg/L. What would the nurse take as the priority action?
- A. Induce vomiting
- B. Hold the next dose of Lithium
- C. Administer an antiemetic
- D. Give the next dose of Lithium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the next dose of Lithium. The blood lithium value of 1.7 mcg/L exceeds the therapeutic range of 0.5-1.5 mcg/L, indicating potential toxicity. Holding the next dose is crucial to prevent further accumulation of lithium in the bloodstream. Inducing vomiting is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to prevent further absorption of lithium. Administering an antiemetic is not the priority in lithium toxicity. Giving the next dose of lithium would exacerbate the toxicity and should be avoided.
3. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?
- A. Nadolol (Corgard)
- B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
- C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
- D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 �F (15 and 30 �C) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability. Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.
4. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?
- A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
- B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
- C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
- D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.
5. Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis?
- A. Maintaining good nutrition
- B. Avoiding alcohol ingestion
- C. Taking lactulose (Cephulac)
- D. Using vitamin B supplements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important topic to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis is avoiding alcohol ingestion. Alcohol abstinence is crucial in stopping or reversing the progression of the disease. While maintaining good nutrition, taking lactulose (Cephulac), and using vitamin B supplements are important interventions in managing cirrhosis, abstaining from alcohol is the priority for this patient to prevent further damage to the liver and halt disease progression.
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