NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
- A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
- B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
- C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
- D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
2. After assessing Mr. B, what is the initial action of the nurse?
- A. Immediately place the client in a negative-pressure room
- B. Set the client up to receive a bronchoscopy
- C. Contact the physician for antifungal medications
- D. Administer oxygen and assist the client to sit in the semi-Fowler's position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take after assessing Mr. B is to administer oxygen and assist him to sit in the semi-Fowler's position. Administering oxygen helps improve tissue oxygenation, while sitting up in a semi-Fowler's position aids in better breathing and secretion clearance. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room is not the immediate priority unless isolation is needed. Performing a bronchoscopy or contacting the physician for antifungal medications is not the initial step in managing a client with suspected pneumonia.
3. The infant has a diagnosis of bladder exstrophy. To protect the exposed bladder tissue, what intervention should the nurse plan?
- A. Cover the bladder with petroleum jelly gauze.
- B. Cover the bladder with a non-adhering plastic wrap.
- C. Apply sterile distilled water dressings over the bladder mucosa.
- D. Keep the bladder tissue dry by covering it with dry sterile gauze.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a condition where the bladder is exposed and external to the body. To protect the exposed bladder tissue from drying out while allowing urine drainage, it is best to cover the bladder with a non-adhering plastic wrap. Using petroleum jelly gauze should be avoided as it can dry out, adhere to the mucosa, and damage delicate tissue upon removal. Applying sterile distilled water dressings can also dry out and cause damage when removed. Keeping the bladder tissue dry with sterile gauze is not ideal as maintaining a moist environment is important for tissue protection in this case.
4. The client is being prepared for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter). What information does the client need to know about the purpose of this catheter insertion?
- A. Stroke volume
- B. Cardiac output
- C. Venous pressure
- D. Left ventricular functioning
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Left ventricular functioning. The purpose of inserting a pulmonary artery catheter is to obtain information about left ventricular functioning when the catheter balloon is inflated. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a pulmonary artery catheter can provide information on stroke volume, cardiac output, and venous pressure, its primary purpose is to assess left ventricular function.
5. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?
- A. Assess the patient for nuchal rigidity
- B. Determine the patient's past exposure to infectious organisms
- C. Check the patient's WBC lab values
- D. Monitor for increased lethargy and drowsiness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.
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