NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
- A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
- B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
- C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
- D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
2. What is the cause of meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients?
- A. Virus
- B. Bacteria
- C. Fungus
- D. Noninfectious agent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria commonly lead to acute onset meningitis, presenting with symptoms like fever, stiff neck, and altered consciousness. The statement that bacterial meningitis is fatal in about 50% of cases is accurate, making it a serious and life-threatening condition. Viruses can also cause meningitis, but they are not typically associated with the high fatality rate seen in bacterial meningitis. Fungal meningitis is less common and usually affects individuals with weakened immune systems. Noninfectious agents do not cause meningitis.
3. During an assessment of a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, what assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? Select one that applies.
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased serum lipids
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, the hallmark finding is massive proteinuria due to increased glomerular permeability. This leads to hypoalbuminemia, resulting in generalized edema. Weight gain, not weight loss, is typically seen due to fluid retention. Serum lipids are elevated, not decreased, in nephrotic syndrome. Hematuria, the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome.
4. While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?
- A. Check vital signs
- B. Massage the fundus
- C. Offer a bedpan
- D. Check for perineal lacerations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Massage the fundus. The nurse's first action should be to massage the fundus until it is firm as uterine atony is the primary cause of bleeding in the first hour after delivery. Checking vital signs, offering a bedpan, or checking for perineal lacerations are important assessments but addressing the boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding due to uterine atony takes precedence in this situation.
5. A patient diagnosed with alopecia would be described as having:
- A. body lice
- B. lack of ear lobes
- C. Indigestion
- D. hair loss
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'hair loss.' Alopecia is a medical term that specifically refers to the condition of hair loss, usually in patches or all over the body. Choice A, 'body lice,' refers to a parasitic infestation and is not related to alopecia. Choice B, 'lack of ear lobes,' is completely unrelated to the term alopecia, which is solely about hair loss. Choice C, 'Indigestion,' has no connection to alopecia as it pertains to digestive issues, not hair loss. Therefore, the correct description for a patient diagnosed with alopecia is 'hair loss.'
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access