Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to palpate and percuss a patient's abdomen as part of the assessment process. Which of these findings would cause the healthcare professional to immediately discontinue this part of the assessment?

• A. The patient states, 'That sounds like it might hurt me.'
• B. There is a pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen.
• C. The patient has black, tarry stools and anemia.
• D. The patient has had an endoscopic procedure two days prior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen is indicative of a life-threatening aortic aneurysm. Palpating or percussing such an area can potentially cause the aneurysm to rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding and endangering the patient's life. Therefore, the healthcare professional should immediately discontinue the assessment to prevent any harm.\nChoice A is incorrect because the patient expressing concerns about the procedure does not necessarily indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C describes symptoms that should be further investigated but do not pose an immediate threat during abdominal assessment. Choice D, a prior endoscopic procedure, is not a contraindication for palpation or percussion of the abdomen unless there are specific complications or conditions related to the procedure that would require caution.

3. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?

• A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
• B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
• C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
• D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.

4. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:

• A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode.
• B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed.
• C. Administer antidysrhythmics prn as ordered.
• D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily is crucial to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to the Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intrathoracic pressure, decrease venous return to the heart, and reduce cardiac output, potentially worsening the client's condition. If constipation occurs, the use of laxatives may be necessary to avoid straining. Administering antidysrhythmics on an as-needed basis is not indicated for preventing the Valsalva maneuver; they are used to manage dysrhythmias. Strict bed rest is not necessary and may lead to complications such as deconditioning, DVT, and respiratory issues in the absence of specific medical indications.

5. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?

• A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
• B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
• C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
• D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.

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