NCLEX NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?
- A. 8
- B. 10
- C. 14
- D. 18
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.
2. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
- B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
- C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
- D. Pull the auricle down and back.
Correct answer: Place the client in a side-lying position.
Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.
3. An examiner is using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient’s eyes. The patient has astigmatism and is nearsighted. Which of these techniques by the examiner would indicate that the examination is being correctly performed?
- A. Rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus
- B. Using the large full circle of light when assessing pupils that are not dilated
- C. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers to compensate for astigmatism
- D. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial to visualize the external structures of the eye
Correct answer: Rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus
Rationale: To correctly perform an eye examination using an ophthalmoscope on a patient with astigmatism and nearsightedness, the examiner should rotate the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus. This adjustment helps compensate for nearsightedness or farsightedness but does not correct astigmatism. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers is not an appropriate technique for compensating for astigmatism. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial is primarily for visualizing external structures of the eye, not for addressing refractive errors. The large full circle of light is typically used when assessing dilated pupils, not for examining patients with astigmatism and nearsightedness. Therefore, the correct technique is rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus.
4. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
- B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
- C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
- D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.
Correct answer: A: Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.
5. In which of the following ways can a healthcare provider promote the sense of taste for an older adult?
- A. Mixing foods together on the dinner tray
- B. Avoiding cologne, air fresheners, or room deodorizers
- C. Encouraging the client to chew food thoroughly
- D. Discouraging the use of salt or seasonings with prepared food
Correct answer: Encouraging the client to chew food thoroughly
Rationale: As individuals age, their sense of taste may diminish, impacting the enjoyment of eating. One effective way for a healthcare provider to promote the sense of taste for an older adult is by encouraging them to chew food thoroughly. Thorough chewing increases the contact of food with the taste buds, enhancing the chances of experiencing the flavors. Mixing foods together on the dinner tray may not necessarily enhance taste perception. Avoiding strong scents like cologne, air fresheners, or room deodorizers is more related to olfactory senses rather than taste. Discouraging the use of salt or seasonings can further diminish the taste experience for older adults who may already have reduced taste sensitivity.
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