NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?
- A. 8
- B. 10
- C. 14
- D. 18
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.
2. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:
- A. Oligomenorrhea
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Menorrhagia
- D. Metrorrhagia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.
3. You are caring for Thomas N., a 77-year-old man with edema in his legs and a fluid restriction. You have been assigned to weigh him daily. Based on these symptoms and the care he is receiving, what disorder is he most likely affected by?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Dementia
- C. Congestive heart failure
- D. Contiguous heart disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thomas N.'s symptoms of edema in his legs and fluid restriction point towards congestive heart failure (CHF) rather than dementia or diabetes. In CHF, patients often present with dependent edema in their legs due to excessive blood volume, leading to fluid intake restrictions and a low-salt diet. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in CHF to assess fluid retention or loss. Diabetes primarily affects blood sugar levels, dementia is a cognitive disorder, and 'Contiguous heart disease' is not a recognized medical term, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.
4. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?
- A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
- B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
- C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
- D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.
5. A patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with IV antibiotics for 3 days. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective?
- A. Bronchial breath sounds are heard at the right base.
- B. The patient coughs up small amounts of green mucus.
- C. The patients white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/L
- D. Increased tactile fremitus is palpable over the right chest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access