Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?

• A. Bulging anterior fontanel
• B. Repeated vomiting
• C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM
• D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure after head trauma can lead to serious complications. Repeated vomiting is a concerning sign as it can indicate stimulation of the vomiting center within the brainstem due to increased pressure. This can be an early indicator of raised intracranial pressure and the need for urgent medical intervention. Bulging anterior fontanel may not be immediately apparent in a 4-year-old child and is more common in infants. Signs of sleepiness at a particular time of day are not specific to increased intracranial pressure. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches may indicate vision problems but is not directly related to intracranial pressure.

3. A patient is being discharged from the med-surgical unit. The patient has a history of gastritis. The nurse questions the patient on their usual routine at home. Which of these statements would alert the nurse that additional teaching is required?

• A. I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.
• B. I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods.
• C. I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals.
• D. I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.' Aspirin is classified as an NSAID and can exacerbate existing stomach problems, such as gastritis. Therefore, patients with gastritis should avoid aspirin just like any other NSAID. Choice B, 'I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods,' is a good practice for a patient with gastritis. Choice C, 'I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals,' indicates understanding of the correct timing for antacid use. Choice D, 'I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often,' shows a suitable limitation of coffee intake, which is beneficial for patients with gastritis.

4. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?

• A. Anesthesia reaction
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.

5. A client is undergoing radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer. Following the radiation, the client develops xerostomia. Which of the following best describes this condition?

• A. Cracks in the corners of the mouth
• B. Peeling skin from the tongue and gums
• C. Increased dental caries
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Xerostomia, also known as dry mouth, is a common side effect of radiation therapy in the head and neck region. It occurs when the salivary glands are damaged during treatment, reducing saliva production and causing a dry sensation in the mouth. The correct answer is 'Dry mouth' (option D). Choice A, 'Cracks in the corners of the mouth,' describes angular cheilitis, a condition linked to nutritional deficiencies or candida infection. Choice B, 'Peeling skin from the tongue and gums,' is more indicative of conditions like oral thrush or mucositis. Choice C, 'Increased dental caries,' is a consequence of reduced saliva flow but does not specifically describe xerostomia.

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