Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

2. A patient who has just been admitted with community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6�F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first?

• A. Codeine
• B. Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
• C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• D. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn). Early initiation of antibiotic therapy is crucial in cases of community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia to reduce mortality. While providing symptomatic relief with medications like Codeine for cough, Guaifenesin for mucus clearance, and Acetaminophen for fever and pain is important, the priority should be to start antibiotic therapy to target the underlying infection. Piperacillin/tazobactam is an appropriate choice for treating severe community-acquired pneumonia caused by pneumococcal organisms.

3. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:

• A. Increase fluids that are high in protein
• B. Restrict fluids
• C. Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
• D. Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.

4. A 45-year-old woman is prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for Parkinson's Disease. The patient is living at home with her daughter. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of ropinirole?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Sudden dizziness
• C. Mask-like facial expression
• D. Stooped posture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sudden dizziness.' Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of ropinirole that can lead to an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole belongs to the drug class of dopamine agonists, which mimic dopamine in the brain (Parkinson's Disease is characterized by a lack of dopamine). 'Slurred speech' is not a common side effect of ropinirole. 'Mask-like facial expression' and 'Stooped posture' are more associated with the progression of Parkinson's Disease itself rather than a side effect of ropinirole.

5. A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient in a supine position
• B. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• C. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing
• D. Start an IV in the other arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.

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