the nurse calculates the iv flow rate of a patient receiving lactated ringers solution the patient is to receive 2000ml of lactated ringers over 36 ho
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

2. The nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected to have glomerulonephritis. Which statement by the child's parent should the nurse expect that is associated with this diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Gross hematuria, resulting in dark, smoky, cola-colored, or brown-colored urine, is a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. Blood urea nitrogen levels and serum creatinine levels may be elevated, indicating that kidney function is compromised. A mild to moderate elevation in protein in the urine is associated with glomerulonephritis. Hypertension is also common because of fluid volume overload secondary to the kidneys not working properly. Therefore, the parent's statement about noticing cola-colored urine aligns with the expected symptom in glomerulonephritis. The other options are less indicative of glomerulonephritis: choice A indicates normal kidney function, choice C mentions absence of protein in the urine (which is not expected in glomerulonephritis), and choice D talks about low blood pressure (hypertension is more common in glomerulonephritis).

3. A client is undergoing radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer. Following the radiation, the client develops xerostomia. Which of the following best describes this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Xerostomia, also known as dry mouth, is a common side effect of radiation therapy in the head and neck region. It occurs when the salivary glands are damaged during treatment, reducing saliva production and causing a dry sensation in the mouth. The correct answer is 'Dry mouth' (option D). Choice A, 'Cracks in the corners of the mouth,' describes angular cheilitis, a condition linked to nutritional deficiencies or candida infection. Choice B, 'Peeling skin from the tongue and gums,' is more indicative of conditions like oral thrush or mucositis. Choice C, 'Increased dental caries,' is a consequence of reduced saliva flow but does not specifically describe xerostomia.

4. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

5. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.

Similar Questions

A patient's chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you NOT expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?
A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?
The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions?
A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is:

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses