Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

2. Application - The nurse is caring for a patient who has the following labs: Creatinine 2.5mg/dL, WBC 11,000 cells/mL, and Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Based on this information, which of these orders would the nurse question?

• A. Administer 30 Units of Lantus Daily
• B. CT of the spine with contrast
• C. X-ray of the abdomen and chest
• D. Administer heparin subcutaneously 5,000 Units every 12 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to question the order for a CT of the spine with contrast. The patient's elevated creatinine level of 2.5mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function. Contrast agents are nephrotoxic and can further compromise kidney function in patients with existing nephropathy. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid contrast-enhanced imaging studies in patients with impaired renal function. Choice A: Administering 30 Units of Lantus Daily is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice C: Ordering an X-ray of the abdomen and chest is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice D: Administering heparin subcutaneously at 5,000 Units every 12 hours is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values.

3. A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

• A. All striated muscles
• B. The cerebellum
• C. The kidneys
• D. The leg bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.

4. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient taking lithium for schizoaffective disorder. The lab results show that the blood lithium value is 1.7 mcg/L. What would the nurse take as the priority action?

• A. Induce vomiting
• B. Hold the next dose of Lithium
• C. Administer an antiemetic
• D. Give the next dose of Lithium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the next dose of Lithium. The blood lithium value of 1.7 mcg/L exceeds the therapeutic range of 0.5-1.5 mcg/L, indicating potential toxicity. Holding the next dose is crucial to prevent further accumulation of lithium in the bloodstream. Inducing vomiting is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to prevent further absorption of lithium. Administering an antiemetic is not the priority in lithium toxicity. Giving the next dose of lithium would exacerbate the toxicity and should be avoided.

5. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

• A. Hypovolemic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Distributive shock
• D. Obstructive shock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

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