Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is discussing the term subculture with a student nurse. Which statement by the nurse would best describe subculture?

• A. "Fitting as many people as possible into the majority culture."?
• B. "Identifying small groups of people who do not want to be identified with the larger culture."?
• C. "Singling out groups of people who suffer differential and unequal treatment as a result of cultural variations."?
• D. "Recognizing groups of people within a culture with shared characteristics that are not common to all members of the culture."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A subculture refers to a group of people within a larger culture who share distinct beliefs, values, or attitudes that are not universal among all members of the larger culture. Subcultures can emerge based on factors such as ethnicity, religion, education, occupation, age, and gender. The correct answer describes the concept of a subculture accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not capture the essence of a subculture. Fitting people into the majority culture, identifying small groups who distance themselves from the larger culture, or singling out individuals facing differential treatment do not define subculture. Subcultures represent specific groups with shared characteristics that differentiate them from the broader cultural norms.

2. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

3. You see a sign over Mary Jones' bed when you arrive at 7 am to begin your day shift. The sign says, 'NPO'. Ms. Jones is on a regular diet. The patient asks for milk and some crackers. You _____________.

• A. can give her the milk but not the crackers
• B. can give her both the milk and the crackers
• C. can give her the crackers but not the milk
• D. cannot give her anything to eat or drink

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that you cannot give her anything to eat or drink. 'NPO' is the standard abbreviation for 'nothing by mouth,' indicating that the patient should not consume any food or liquids. It is crucial to adhere to this restriction to prevent any potential harm or complications in the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'NPO' clearly specifies that the patient should not have anything to eat or drink, including milk and crackers. Providing these items could lead to adverse effects, so it is essential to follow the 'NPO' directive strictly.

4. An adult patient is at the clinic for a physical examination. The patient states that they are feeling 'very anxious' about the physical examination. What steps can the nurse take to make the patient more comfortable?

• A. Appear unhurried and confident when examining the patient.
• B. Leave the room when the patient undresses unless they need assistance.
• C. Ask the patient to change into an examining gown and to leave their undergarments on.
• D. Measure vital signs at the beginning of the examination to gradually accustom the patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To help alleviate the patient's anxiety, the nurse should appear unhurried and confident during the examination. This can make the patient feel more at ease and reassured. It is important for the nurse to respect the patient's privacy by leaving the room while the patient changes unless assistance is needed. The patient should be instructed to change into an examining gown while leaving their undergarments on, providing a sense of comfort and familiarity. Additionally, measuring vital signs at the beginning of the examination can help gradually acclimate the patient to the process, making it less overwhelming. Therefore, the correct answer is to appear unhurried and confident when examining the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's anxiety or provide comfort in the same way as the correct answer.

5. Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?

• A. Angina at rest
• B. Thrombus formation
• C. Dizziness
• D. Falling blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombus formation is a critical complication of cardiac catheterization that the nurse should monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure. A thrombus can form in the blood vessels, obstructing blood flow and potentially leading to serious consequences such as embolism or organ ischemia. While angina at rest, dizziness, and falling blood pressure are potential complications following cardiac catheterization, they are not typically associated with the immediate post-procedural period. Monitoring for thrombus formation is essential to ensure early detection and intervention, which can prevent serious complications.

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