NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Preview Answers
1. A 51-year-old woman had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to
- A. choose low-fat foods from the menu
- B. perform leg exercises hourly while awake
- C. ambulate the evening of the operative day
- D. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Postoperative nursing care after a cholecystectomy focuses on preventing respiratory complications due to the surgical incision being high in the abdomen, which impairs coughing and deep breathing. Turning, coughing, and deep breathing every 2 hours help prevent respiratory complications, such as pneumonia. While choices A, B, and C are also important aspects of postoperative care, they are not as high a priority as ensuring proper ventilation and respiratory function in the immediate postoperative period.
2. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?
- A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
- B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
- C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
- D. Do not use the AED
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.
3. You are taking care of 7 patients today. One of your residents wants water; another needs help walking to the bathroom; another just stated that they have chest pain; and another is crying because his daughter did not visit him today. Which patient care task is the lowest in terms of priority?
- A. The water
- B. Help to the bathroom
- C. The chest pain
- D. The crying person
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The lowest priority patient care task in this scenario is addressing the emotional need of the patient who is crying because his daughter did not visit him today. While emotional support is important, the other needs - providing water, assisting to the bathroom, and addressing chest pain - are physical needs that must take priority as they directly impact the patient's well-being and health. It is crucial to acknowledge and address emotional needs but in this situation, the physical needs of the patients should be addressed first.
4. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?
- A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
- B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
- C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
- D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.
5. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?
- A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
- B. Only the patient
- C. Only the healthcare proxy
- D. The doctor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.
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