Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client about their new prescription for warfarin, what should the nurse advise?

• A. To have his white blood cell count tested once a month
• B. To avoid any activities that could lead to injury
• C. To avoid eating leafy green vegetables
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid any activities that could lead to injury when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that decreases blood clotting, increasing the risk of bleeding. Engaging in activities that may result in injury can lead to uncontrolled bleeding, which can be serious. While monitoring white blood cell count is not specifically related to warfarin therapy, avoiding leafy green vegetables is important due to their vitamin K content, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Therefore, the client should be educated to avoid activities that could cause injury to prevent potential bleeding complications.

2. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

3. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

4. What technique would the nurse use to accurately assess a rectal temperature in an adult?

• A. Use a lubricated blunt tip thermometer.
• B. Insert the thermometer 2 to 3 inches into the rectum.
• C. Leave the thermometer in place for up to 8 minutes if the patient is febrile.
• D. Wait 2 to 3 minutes if the patient has recently smoked a cigarette.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To accurately assess a rectal temperature in an adult, a nurse should use a lubricated rectal thermometer with a short, blunt tip. The thermometer is inserted only 2 to 3 cm (1 inch) into the rectum and left in place for 2 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as inserting the thermometer 2 to 3 inches would be too deep and inaccurate. Choice C is incorrect as leaving the thermometer in place for up to 8 minutes is unnecessary and can cause discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as smoking a cigarette does not impact rectal temperatures.

5. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

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