Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is completing an incident report about a medication error that she made when she accidentally administered too much insulin to a diabetic client. All of the following are components of this documentation EXCEPT:

• A. The reason for administering the wrong dose
• B. The type of drug involved
• C. The amount of insulin that was given
• D. Any adverse effects on the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When completing an incident report for a medication error, it is essential to include factual information such as the type of drug involved, the amount administered, and any adverse effects on the client. However, stating the reason for administering the wrong dose should be avoided in documentation. The focus should be on reporting what happened rather than assigning blame or admitting fault. This approach helps in ensuring a thorough and accurate account of the medication error without introducing subjective elements that could complicate the investigation or resolution process. Therefore, the correct answer is 'The reason for administering the wrong dose.' Choices A, B, and D are vital components of incident report documentation, providing crucial details that help in understanding the error and its impact on the client.

2. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

3. A client is being assisted to lie in the Sims' position. In what position does the nurse arrange the client?

• A. The client lies on his side with the upper leg flexed
• B. The client lies on his back with his head lower than his feet
• C. The client lies on his abdomen with a pillow supporting his head
• D. The client is sitting up at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Sims' position is a side-lying position used for examinations or comfort. In the Sims' position, the client lies on their side with the upper leg flexed. The abdomen is slightly downward, and the lower arm is positioned behind the body. A pillow can be used to support the leg. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a position with the client lying on their back with the head lower than the feet. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a prone position, not the Sims' position. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a sitting position, not the Sims' position.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. When assessing a pulse, what should be noted?

• A. Rate
• B. Rate and quality
• C. Rate, quality, and fullness
• D. Rate, quality, fullness, and regularity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a pulse, it is important to note the rate (number of beats per minute), quality (regular or irregular), and fullness (thread and weak or full and bounding). These aspects provide crucial information about the patient's cardiovascular status. Regularity, as mentioned in option D, is not typically assessed during a pulse check and is not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Choice A is too limited as it overlooks important aspects beyond just the rate. Choice B improves by adding quality but still lacks the fullness aspect. Choice C is the most comprehensive and accurate as it includes all three essential aspects for a thorough pulse assessment.

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