Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old woman is experiencing anaphylaxis from a bee sting. Emergency personnel have been called. The nurse notes the woman is breathing but short of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do first?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Check for a pulse
• C. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit
• D. Stay with the woman until help comes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to act swiftly. Asking the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit is the most appropriate initial intervention. Many individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry epinephrine auto-injectors, such as epi-pens, which can be life-saving in such situations. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is not indicated as the patient is breathing but short of breath, and CPR is not the first-line intervention for anaphylaxis. Checking for a pulse, though important, is not the initial priority in managing anaphylaxis. Staying with the woman until help arrives is essential for providing support and monitoring her condition, but confirming the availability of an emergency medical kit takes precedence to promptly address the anaphylactic reaction.

2. A patient with Glaucoma is verbalizing his daily medication routine to the nurse. He states he has two different eye drop medications, both every twelve hours. He washes his hands, instills the drops, closes his eyes gently, and presses his finger to the corner of his eye nearest his nose. After waiting 1 minute with his eyes closed, he instills the other medication in the same way. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. ''You should wait more than 1 minute between different medications.''
• B. ''Your routine is very good! Can you demonstrate it for me?''
• C. ''It is actually not the best practice to close your eyes after instilling eye drops.''
• D. ''You should actually be pressing your finger in the other corner of the eye.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is recommended to wait 10-15 minutes between different eye drop medications to give them time to absorb and avoid one medication washing another one out. Choice A is the correct response as the patient should wait more than 1 minute between administering different eye drop medications. Choice B is incorrect as the routine described by the patient needs improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as closing the eyes after instilling eye drops is a best practice to ensure proper absorption. Choice D is incorrect as pressing the finger to the corner of the eye nearest the nose is the correct technique.

3. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?

• A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
• B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
• C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
• D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.

4. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?

• A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
• B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
• C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
• D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.

5. After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, what client response should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Abdominal distension
• B. Currant jelly-like stools
• C. Severe, colicky-type pain with vomiting
• D. Passage of barium or water-soluble contrast with stools

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, the nurse should observe the passage of barium or water-soluble contrast with stools. This indicates a successful reduction of the telescoped bowel segment. Abdominal distension and currant jelly-like stools are clinical manifestations of intussusception, not expected outcomes following hydrostatic reduction. Severe, colicky-type pain with vomiting suggests an unresolved gastrointestinal issue, not a successful reduction of intussusception.

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