Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old woman is experiencing anaphylaxis from a bee sting. Emergency personnel have been called. The nurse notes the woman is breathing but short of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do first?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Check for a pulse
• C. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit
• D. Stay with the woman until help comes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to act swiftly. Asking the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit is the most appropriate initial intervention. Many individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry epinephrine auto-injectors, such as epi-pens, which can be life-saving in such situations. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is not indicated as the patient is breathing but short of breath, and CPR is not the first-line intervention for anaphylaxis. Checking for a pulse, though important, is not the initial priority in managing anaphylaxis. Staying with the woman until help arrives is essential for providing support and monitoring her condition, but confirming the availability of an emergency medical kit takes precedence to promptly address the anaphylactic reaction.

2. When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patient's right hand. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Ask the patient about any arm pain.
• B. Retake the patient's blood pressure.
• C. Check the calcium level in the chart.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse observed carpal spasms in the patient's right hand, indicating a positive Trousseau's sign, which is associated with hypocalcemia. Patients with acute pancreatitis are at risk for hypocalcemia, hence the nurse should promptly check the calcium level in the chart to assess the patient's condition. Notifying the healthcare provider comes after confirming the calcium level. There is no indication to ask about arm pain or to retake the blood pressure, as the primary concern is addressing the potential hypocalcemia.

3. A patient has come into the emergency room after an injury at work in which their upper body was pinned between two pieces of equipment. The nurse notes bruising in the upper abdomen and chest. The patient is complaining of sharp chest pain, having difficulty breathing, and their trachea is deviated to the left side. Which of the following conditions are these symptoms most closely associated with?

• A. Left-sided pneumothorax
• B. Pleural effusion
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Right-sided pneumothorax

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient is most likely suffering from a right-sided pneumothorax. Symptoms of a pneumothorax include sharp chest pain, difficulties with breathing, decreased vocal fremitus, absent breath sounds, and tracheal shift to the opposite of the affected side. In this case, the patient's trachea is deviated to the left side, indicating a right-sided pneumothorax. Choices A, B, and C can be eliminated as they do not present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario. Left-sided pneumothorax would not cause tracheal deviation to the left side. Pleural effusion typically presents with dull chest pain and decreased breath sounds, not sharp chest pain and tracheal deviation. Atelectasis would not cause tracheal deviation and is more associated with lung collapse rather than air accumulation in the pleural space.

4. A client is in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) shivering despite being covered with several layers of blankets. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Turn the client to the prone position
• B. Assist the client in breathing deeply
• C. Administer meperidine as ordered
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the post-anesthesia care unit, clients may experience shivering or chills due to a drop in body temperature after surgery. Meperidine (Demerol) can be prescribed to alleviate shivering in cold clients. The prone position (lying face down) and deep breathing exercises are not interventions specifically indicated for addressing shivering due to low body temperature. Therefore, administering meperidine as ordered is the most appropriate action to manage the client's shivering in this scenario.

5. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?

• A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
• B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
• C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
• D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.

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