NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. During an assessment of a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, what assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? Select one that applies.
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased serum lipids
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, the hallmark finding is massive proteinuria due to increased glomerular permeability. This leads to hypoalbuminemia, resulting in generalized edema. Weight gain, not weight loss, is typically seen due to fluid retention. Serum lipids are elevated, not decreased, in nephrotic syndrome. Hematuria, the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome.
2. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
- B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
- C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
- D. Nephrotic syndrome.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.
3. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
- A. The tumor is less than 3 cm in size and requires no chemotherapy.
- B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
- C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
- D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed. Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.
4. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?
- A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
- B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
- C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
- D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.
5. A 24-year-old female contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, what would serologic testing most likely reveal?
- A. antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV).
- B. hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).
- C. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG).
- D. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.
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