NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:
- A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode.
- B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed.
- C. Administer antidysrhythmics prn as ordered.
- D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily is crucial to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to the Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intrathoracic pressure, decrease venous return to the heart, and reduce cardiac output, potentially worsening the client's condition. If constipation occurs, the use of laxatives may be necessary to avoid straining. Administering antidysrhythmics on an as-needed basis is not indicated for preventing the Valsalva maneuver; they are used to manage dysrhythmias. Strict bed rest is not necessary and may lead to complications such as deconditioning, DVT, and respiratory issues in the absence of specific medical indications.
2. The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient. Which nursing action will be most effective?
- A. Turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours.
- B. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions.
- C. Monitor for respiratory symptoms in immunosuppressed patients.
- D. Insert nasogastric tube for feedings in patients with swallowing problems.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient, the most effective nursing action is to place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. This position helps decrease the risk of aspiration as it prevents pooling of secretions and facilitates drainage. Turning and repositioning immobile patients every 2 hours is essential for preventing pressure ulcers and improving circulation but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Monitoring respiratory symptoms in immunosuppressed patients is crucial to detect pneumonia early, but it does not directly prevent aspiration. Inserting a nasogastric tube for feedings in patients with swallowing problems may be necessary for nutritional support but does not address the risk of aspiration directly. Patients at high risk for aspiration include those with altered consciousness, difficulty swallowing, and those with nasogastric intubation, among others. Placing patients with altered consciousness in a side-lying position is a key intervention to reduce the risk of aspiration in this population. Other high-risk groups for aspiration include those who are seriously ill, have poor dentition, or are on acid-reducing medications.
3. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your child will need catheterization until bladder control is gained.
- B. Your child will be able to control their bladder like other children.
- C. You should potty train your child at the same time you normally would.
- D. Your child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, so urine will drain freely.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.
4. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Abdominal tenderness
- C. Left upper quadrant pain
- D. Palpable abdominal mass
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.
5. After repair of an inguinal hernia, the infant is being cared for. Which assessment finding indicates that the surgical repair was effective?
- A. A clean, dry incision
- B. Abdominal distension
- C. An adequate flow of urine
- D. Absence of inguinal swelling with crying
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The absence of inguinal swelling when the infant cries or strains indicates that the surgical repair of the inguinal hernia was effective. Inguinal swelling typically occurs with crying or straining in cases of this condition. A clean, dry incision signifies the absence of wound infection post-surgery but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of the hernia repair. Abdominal distension suggests a gastrointestinal issue unrelated to the hernia repair. An adequate flow of urine is not specific to evaluating the success of inguinal hernia repair.
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