Nursing Elites

1. After repair of an inguinal hernia, the infant is being cared for. Which assessment finding indicates that the surgical repair was effective?

• A. A clean, dry incision
• B. Abdominal distension
• C. An adequate flow of urine
• D. Absence of inguinal swelling with crying

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The absence of inguinal swelling when the infant cries or strains indicates that the surgical repair of the inguinal hernia was effective. Inguinal swelling typically occurs with crying or straining in cases of this condition. A clean, dry incision signifies the absence of wound infection post-surgery but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of the hernia repair. Abdominal distension suggests a gastrointestinal issue unrelated to the hernia repair. An adequate flow of urine is not specific to evaluating the success of inguinal hernia repair.

2. A patient is admitted to the same-day surgery unit for a liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Partial thromboplastin time
• B. Prothrombin time
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hemoglobin.' Hemoglobin levels are not indicative of coagulation status but are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and C are all laboratory tests that assess coagulation. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and prothrombin time (PT) evaluate different aspects of the coagulation cascade, while platelet count is essential for assessing primary hemostasis. Therefore, in the context of evaluating coagulation, hemoglobin is not the appropriate choice.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency room for an ischemic stroke with marked functional deficits. The physician is considering the use of fibrinolytic therapy with TPA (tissue plasminogen activator). Which history-gathering question would not be important for the nurse to ask?

• A. What time did you first notice symptoms consistently appearing?
• B. Have you been taking any blood thinners such as heparin, lovenox, or warfarin?
• C. Have you had another stroke or head trauma in the previous 3 months?
• D. Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?' This question is not relevant in the context of considering fibrinolytic therapy with TPA for an ischemic stroke. Blood transfusions within the previous year do not directly impact the decision to use TPA in the treatment of an acute ischemic stroke. The focus should be on factors such as the time of symptom onset, current medications like blood thinners, and recent history of strokes or head trauma, as these are more directly related to the decision-making process for administering TPA in this emergency situation.

4. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer bicarbonate.
• B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
• C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
• D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.

5. A 34-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

• A. IgA
• B. IgD
• C. IgE
• D. IgG

Correct answer: D

Rationale: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus. About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are generated after an initial exposure to an antigen, offering long-term protection against microorganisms. IgG antibodies are critical for protecting the fetus as they can be rapidly reproduced upon re-exposure to the same antigen. IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas, IgD is involved in antigen recognition, and IgE is associated with allergic reactions, but they do not provide the same level of protection to the fetus as IgG.

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