Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?

• A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
• B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
• C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
• D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.

2. A patient asks a nurse, "My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain the highest concentration of folic acid?'

• A. Green vegetables and liver
• B. Yellow vegetables and red meat
• C. Carrots
• D. Milk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Green vegetables and liver are rich sources of folic acid. Green vegetables like spinach, asparagus, and broccoli are high in folic acid content. Liver, especially from chicken or beef, is also a good source of folic acid. Yellow vegetables and red meat (choice B) do not contain as high a concentration of folic acid as green vegetables and liver. Carrots (choice C) are nutritious but do not have the highest concentration of folic acid. Milk (choice D) is not a significant source of folic acid compared to green vegetables and liver.

3. A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurse's most appropriate action to promote airway clearance?

• A. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing.
• B. Teach the patient about the need for fluid intake.
• C. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula.
• D. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the patient to splint the chest when coughing is the most appropriate action to promote airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia, rhonchi, and thick sputum. Splinting the chest helps reduce pain during coughing and increases the effectiveness of clearing secretions. Teaching the patient about the need for fluid intake is important as it helps liquefy secretions, aiding in easier clearance. Encouraging the patient to wear a nasal oxygen cannula may improve gas exchange but does not directly promote airway clearance. Instructing the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique is beneficial for improving gas exchange in patients with COPD but does not directly aid in airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia and thick sputum.

4. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?

• A. Nadolol (Corgard)
• B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
• C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
• D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 ºF (15 and 30 ºC) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability. Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.

5. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?

• A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
• B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
• C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
• D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.

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