Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

• A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
• B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue.
• C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance.
• D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with the peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion. Ischemic rest pain is more worrisome; it refers to pain in the extremity that is due to a combination of PVD and inadequate perfusion. Ischemic rest pain often is exacerbated by poor cardiac output. The condition is often partially or fully relieved by placing the extremity in a dependent position, so that perfusion is enhanced by the effects of gravity.

2. The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Increased tactile fremitus
• B. Dry, nonproductive cough
• C. Hyperresonance to percussion
• D. A grating sound on auscultation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias, such as pneumococcal pneumonia. Dullness to percussion would be expected due to consolidation. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough rather than a dry, nonproductive cough. Hyperresonance to percussion is not a typical finding in pneumonia and may suggest conditions like emphysema. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical in pneumonia, but a grating sound on auscultation is more representative of a pleural friction rub rather than pneumonia.

3. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a healthcare provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented?

• A. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates.
• B. TB medications have been taken for 6 months.
• C. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm.
• D. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. This finding is crucial for discontinuing airborne precautions. Choice A is incorrect because chest x-rays do not determine the presence of active TB for transmission precautions. Choice B is not directly related to the infectiousness of TB; completing a 6-month course of medication is important for treatment but does not confirm the absence of active disease or infectiousness. Choice C is not relevant to assessing infectiousness; Mantoux testing measures exposure to TB but does not confirm the absence of active infection or infectiousness.

4. When assessing a child admitted to the hospital with pyloric stenosis, which symptom would the nurse likely find when asking the parent about the child's symptoms?

• A. Watery diarrhea
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Vomiting large amounts of bile

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pyloric stenosis, hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus causes narrowing of the pyloric canal between the stomach and the duodenum. The hallmark symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which is the forceful expulsion of stomach contents. Other common symptoms include irritability, hunger and crying, constipation, and signs of dehydration. Watery diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of pyloric stenosis. Increased urine output (Choice C) is not directly associated with this condition. Vomiting large amounts of bile (Choice D) is not a characteristic symptom of pyloric stenosis; instead, the vomitus in pyloric stenosis is non-bilious.

5. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer bicarbonate.
• B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
• C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
• D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.

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