a nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease pvd the patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot to
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions

1. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

Correct answer: Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.

Rationale: Patients with the peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion. Ischemic rest pain is more worrisome; it refers to pain in the extremity that is due to a combination of PVD and inadequate perfusion. Ischemic rest pain often is exacerbated by poor cardiac output. The condition is often partially or fully relieved by placing the extremity in a dependent position, so that perfusion is enhanced by the effects of gravity.

2. The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient?

Correct answer: D: Sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table

Rationale: The correct position for a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion undergoing thoracentesis is sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table. This position helps increase lung expansion, allows fluid to collect at the lung bases, and expands the intercostal space making access to the pleural space easier. Placing the patient supine, in a high-Fowler's position, or on the right side with the left arm extended above the head could increase the work of breathing for the patient and complicate the thoracentesis procedure for the healthcare provider.

3. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.

Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.

4. The nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a lung transplant. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective if the patient makes which statement?

Correct answer: I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.' It is crucial for patients who have undergone a lung transplant to be vigilant about any signs of infection or rejection. A low-grade fever can be an early indicator of such complications, requiring immediate medical attention. While annual follow-up visits are necessary, they are not sufficient for monitoring acute changes in health post-transplant. Stopping prednisone abruptly can lead to rejection and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance. Feeling short of breath with exercise should be reported as it can indicate potential issues. Recognizing and addressing symptoms promptly is key to successful post-transplant care, and in this case, calling the healthcare provider immediately for a fever is the most appropriate action.

5. A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with intussusception, and the mother of the child asks the student nurse to describe the disorder. Which statement by the student nurse indicates correct understanding of this disorder?

Correct answer: It is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel.

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes or prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel. This leads to bowel obstruction and potential ischemia. It is not an acute bowel obstruction, as the obstruction is caused by the telescoping of bowel segments rather than a blockage in the bowel lumen. Intussusception is not primarily an inflammatory process; instead, it is a mechanical issue involving bowel invagination. Choice A is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the pathophysiology of intussusception. Choice C is incorrect because it presents the opposite scenario of what happens in intussusception.

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