Nursing Elites

1. A 24-year-old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Diverticulosis
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Irritable bowel syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypercalcemia. In this case, the patient's history of myeloma, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria suggests hypercalcemia. Elevated calcium levels can lead to polyuria, severe abdominal pain, and confusion. Diverticulosis (Choice A), characterized by small pouches in the colon wall, typically does not present with confusion and polyuria. Hypocalcemia (Choice C) is unlikely given the symptoms described. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice D) does not typically cause confusion and polyuria as seen in hypercalcemia.

2. The clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the primary healthcare provider has documented a diagnosis of suspected Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that which sign most likely led the mother to seek healthcare for the infant?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Regurgitation of feedings
• D. Foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or aganglionic megacolon, is a congenital anomaly characterized by an absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and other areas of the affected intestine. A key clinical manifestation of Hirschsprung's disease is chronic constipation that starts in the first month of life, leading to pellet-like or ribbon-like stools that have a foul smell. Another sign is the delayed passage or absence of meconium stool in the neonatal period. In addition to foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools, bowel obstruction (especially in the neonatal period), abdominal pain and distention, and failure to thrive are also common clinical manifestations of this disorder. Options A, B, and C are not typically associated with Hirschsprung's disease, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

3. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?

• A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
• B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
• C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
• D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.

4. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a healthcare provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented?

• A. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates.
• B. TB medications have been taken for 6 months.
• C. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm.
• D. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. This finding is crucial for discontinuing airborne precautions. Choice A is incorrect because chest x-rays do not determine the presence of active TB for transmission precautions. Choice B is not directly related to the infectiousness of TB; completing a 6-month course of medication is important for treatment but does not confirm the absence of active disease or infectiousness. Choice C is not relevant to assessing infectiousness; Mantoux testing measures exposure to TB but does not confirm the absence of active infection or infectiousness.

5. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take?

• A. Position the patient so that the left chest is dependent
• B. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound
• C. Cover the sucking chest wound firmly with an occlusive dressing
• D. Keep the head of the patient's bed at no more than 30 degrees elevation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with an open stab wound to the chest is to tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. This dressing technique allows air to escape during expiration but prevents air from entering the pleural space during inspiration, helping to prevent tension pneumothorax. Placing the patient so that the left chest is dependent or covering the wound with an occlusive dressing can trap air in the pleural space, leading to tension pneumothorax. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees helps facilitate breathing and is not the first action to take when managing an open chest wound.

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