Nursing Elites

1. A 24-year-old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Diverticulosis
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Irritable bowel syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypercalcemia. In this case, the patient's history of myeloma, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria suggests hypercalcemia. Elevated calcium levels can lead to polyuria, severe abdominal pain, and confusion. Diverticulosis (Choice A), characterized by small pouches in the colon wall, typically does not present with confusion and polyuria. Hypocalcemia (Choice C) is unlikely given the symptoms described. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice D) does not typically cause confusion and polyuria as seen in hypercalcemia.

2. The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says 99 and notes absent fremitus. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally
• B. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe
• C. Review the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia
• D. Palpate the anterior chest and observe for barrel chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as '99'. After noting absent fremitus, the nurse should then auscultate the lungs to assess for the presence or absence of breath sounds. Absent fremitus may be noted with conditions like pneumothorax or atelectasis. The vibration is increased in conditions such as pneumonia, lung tumors, thick bronchial secretions, and pleural effusion. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe is an appropriate intervention for atelectasis, but assessing breath sounds takes priority. Fremitus is decreased if the hand is farther from the lung or the lung is hyperinflated (barrel chest). Palpating the anterior chest for fremitus is less effective due to the presence of large muscles and breast tissue, making auscultation a more appropriate next step.

3. A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?

• A. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
• B. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
• C. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
• D. "This medication will help my eye restor intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure"

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.

4. A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

• A. All striated muscles
• B. The cerebellum
• C. The kidneys
• D. The leg bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.

5. A client in the ICU has been intubated and placed on a ventilator. The physician orders synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Which statement best describes the work of this mode of ventilation?

• A. The ventilator delivers a set rate and tidal volume regardless of whether the client is attempting to breathe
• B. The ventilator coordinates delivered breaths with the client's respiratory efforts
• C. The ventilator provides a supplemental breath for every third breath of the client
• D. The ventilator provides breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) is a ventilation mode that coordinates delivered breaths with the client's own respiratory efforts. This mode allows the client to initiate breaths, with the ventilator providing preset breaths at a controlled rate and volume. Option A is incorrect because in SIMV, the ventilator syncs with the client's respiratory efforts. Option C is incorrect as it does not accurately depict the way SIMV works. Option D is also incorrect as SIMV does not specifically provide breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations. Therefore, the correct answer is B, where the ventilator coordinates breath delivery with the client's breathing efforts.

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