Nursing Elites

1. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?

• A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
• B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
• C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
• D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.

2. In which of the following conditions would a healthcare provider not administer erythromycin?

• A. Campylobacteriosis infection
• B. Legionnaires disease
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Multiple Sclerosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disease affecting the central nervous system, involving the brain and spinal cord. Since MS is not caused by bacteria, administering erythromycin would not be appropriate. Campylobacteriosis infection, Legionnaires disease, and pneumonia are bacterial infections that can be treated with erythromycin, making them incorrect choices for conditions where erythromycin would not be administered.

3. An 80-year-old patient is admitted with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, and distended neck veins. As the nurse monitors the patient, he becomes increasingly short of breath and begins to have cardiac dysrhythmias. The most critical intervention for this patient is to:

• A. Ensure his airway is open and unobstructed.
• B. Apply oxygen to maintain his oxygen saturation above 94%.
• C. Administer Dobutamine to increase cardiac output.
• D. Start an IV for monitoring fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient presenting with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, distended neck veins, and developing cardiac dysrhythmias, the priority intervention is to ensure the airway is open and unobstructed. Maintaining an open airway is crucial for adequate ventilation and oxygenation, especially in a patient showing signs of impending respiratory distress and cardiac compromise. While applying oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation is important, ensuring airway patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's ability to breathe. Administering Dobutamine may be necessary to improve cardiac output; however, addressing the airway first is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and worsening dysrhythmias. Starting an IV for monitoring fluid intake is not the most critical intervention in this scenario compared to ensuring airway patency and oxygenation.

4. Which clinical manifestations are recognized in nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Hematuria, bacteriuria, weight gain
• B. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, fever
• C. Hypertension, weight loss, proteinuria
• D. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. In this syndrome, there is loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine leading to hypoalbuminemia, fluid retention, and subsequent edema. This results in elevated lipid levels like hypercholesterolemia, but not hypertension. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hematuria, bacteriuria, fever, and weight loss are not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome, distinguishing it from other kidney disorders.

5. Which finding would necessitate an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
• B. Positive urine pregnancy test
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
• D. Complaints of nausea and anorexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive urine pregnancy test would require an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy due to the teratogenic effects of ribavirin. Ribavirin needs to be discontinued immediately to prevent harm to the fetus. The other options, weight loss, hemoglobin level, and complaints of nausea and anorexia, are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may necessitate interventions such as patient education or supportive care, but they would not mandate an immediate cessation of therapy as in the case of a positive pregnancy test.

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