Nursing Elites

1. What is the cause of meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients?

• A. Virus
• B. Bacteria
• C. Fungus
• D. Noninfectious agent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria commonly lead to acute onset meningitis, presenting with symptoms like fever, stiff neck, and altered consciousness. The statement that bacterial meningitis is fatal in about 50% of cases is accurate, making it a serious and life-threatening condition. Viruses can also cause meningitis, but they are not typically associated with the high fatality rate seen in bacterial meningitis. Fungal meningitis is less common and usually affects individuals with weakened immune systems. Noninfectious agents do not cause meningitis.

2. A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down syndrome?

• A. Simian crease
• B. Brachycephaly
• C. Oily skin
• D. Hypotonicity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Down syndrome commonly have certain physical characteristics, such as a simian crease (single transverse palmar crease), brachycephaly (shortened front-to-back skull dimension), and hypotonicity (low muscle tone). Oily skin is not a characteristic associated with Down syndrome; instead, individuals with Down syndrome often have dry skin. Therefore, oily skin is the correct answer in this context.

3. When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

• A. Tremors
• B. Low Urine Output
• C. Exaggerated arm movements
• D. Risk for Falls

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.

4. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?

• A. compound fracture of the fibula
• B. a partial break in a long bone
• C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
• D. Colles fracture of the tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.

5. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

• A. The patient reports no chest pain.
• B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
• D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

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