Nursing Elites

1. What is the cause of meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients?

• A. Virus
• B. Bacteria
• C. Fungus
• D. Noninfectious agent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria commonly lead to acute onset meningitis, presenting with symptoms like fever, stiff neck, and altered consciousness. The statement that bacterial meningitis is fatal in about 50% of cases is accurate, making it a serious and life-threatening condition. Viruses can also cause meningitis, but they are not typically associated with the high fatality rate seen in bacterial meningitis. Fungal meningitis is less common and usually affects individuals with weakened immune systems. Noninfectious agents do not cause meningitis.

2. A child is diagnosed with Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse is teaching the parents about the cause of the disease. Which statement, if made by the parent, supports that teaching was successful?

• A. The absence of special cells in the rectum caused the disease.
• B. Incomplete digestion of the protein part of wheat, barley, rye, and oats is not the cause of the disease.
• C. The disease does not occur due to increased bowel motility leading to spasm and pain.
• D. The disease is not caused by the inability to tolerate sugar found in dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or megacolon, is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and, sometimes, extending into the colon. Choice A correctly explains the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice B is incorrect as it describes celiac disease, which is related to gluten intolerance. Choice C is inaccurate as it describes symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome, not the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice D is wrong as it pertains to lactose intolerance, not Hirschsprung's disease.

3. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first?

• A. Performing a chest x-ray via stretcher
• B. Obtaining blood cultures from two sites
• C. Administering Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV
• D. Inserting an Acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis, the priority intervention is to obtain blood cultures from two sites before initiating antibiotic therapy. This is crucial to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment. Administering antibiotics without obtaining cultures first can interfere with accurate results. Performing a chest x-ray and administering acetaminophen can be done after obtaining blood cultures as they are important but not as urgent as identifying the causative organism in sepsis.

4. The infection control nurse is assigned to a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer. The wound is 5cm in diameter and the drainage saturates the dressing so that it must be changed every hour. What is her priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient under contact precautions
• B. Use strict aseptic technique when caring for the wound
• C. Place another dressing to reinforce the first one
• D. Elevate the patient's leg to prevent more drainage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer, with a wound that saturates the dressing every hour, is to place the patient under contact precautions. Contact precautions are essential when managing infectious wounds to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers, other patients, and visitors. Strict aseptic technique (Choice B) should always be used with wound care but is secondary to implementing contact precautions in this scenario. Placing another dressing (Choice C) or elevating the patient's leg (Choice D) may be necessary but do not address the immediate need for infection control measures.

5. An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding?

• A. Yellow-tinged skin
• B. Orange-colored sputum
• C. Thickening of the fingernails
• D. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Yellow-tinged skin.' Yellow-tinged skin is indicative of noninfectious hepatitis, a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide. If a patient on TB therapy develops hepatotoxicity, alternative medications will be necessary. Thickening of fingernails and difficulty hearing high-pitched voices are not typical side effects of the medications used in standard TB therapy. Presbycusis, age-related hearing loss, is common in older adults and not a cause for immediate concern. Orange-colored sputum is an expected side effect of rifampin and does not warrant immediate notification to the healthcare provider.

Similar Questions