NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding?
- A. Yellow-tinged skin
- B. Orange-colored sputum
- C. Thickening of the fingernails
- D. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Yellow-tinged skin.' Yellow-tinged skin is indicative of noninfectious hepatitis, a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide. If a patient on TB therapy develops hepatotoxicity, alternative medications will be necessary. Thickening of fingernails and difficulty hearing high-pitched voices are not typical side effects of the medications used in standard TB therapy. Presbycusis, age-related hearing loss, is common in older adults and not a cause for immediate concern. Orange-colored sputum is an expected side effect of rifampin and does not warrant immediate notification to the healthcare provider.
2. A 24-year-old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Diverticulosis
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypercalcemia. In this case, the patient's history of myeloma, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria suggests hypercalcemia. Elevated calcium levels can lead to polyuria, severe abdominal pain, and confusion. Diverticulosis (Choice A), characterized by small pouches in the colon wall, typically does not present with confusion and polyuria. Hypocalcemia (Choice C) is unlikely given the symptoms described. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice D) does not typically cause confusion and polyuria as seen in hypercalcemia.
3. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?
- A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
- B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
- C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
- D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.
4. A child is prescribed baclofen (Lioresal) via intrathecal pump to treat severe muscle spasms related to cerebral palsy. What teaching does the nurse provide the child and parents?
- A. Do not let this prescription run out.
- B. The medication may cause gingival hyperplasia.
- C. Periodic serum drug levels are needed.
- D. Watch for excessive facial hair growth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching for the child and parents when a child is prescribed baclofen via an intrathecal pump is to not let the prescription run out. Abrupt discontinuation of intrathecal baclofen can lead to severe effects like high fever, altered mental status, and rebound spasticity and muscle rigidity. It is crucial for the parents to ensure there is always an adequate supply of this medication to prevent these adverse effects. Choices B and D are incorrect because gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism are side effects associated with phenytoin (Dilantin), not baclofen. Choice C is incorrect as serum drug levels are not typically monitored for intrathecal medications.
5. A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?
- A. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
- B. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
- C. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
- D. "This medication will help my eye restor intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure"
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.
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