Nursing Elites

1. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient after a coronary angiogram. Which of these actions taken by the nursing assistant would most require the nurse's immediate intervention?

• A. The nursing assistant fills the patient's pitcher with ice-cold drinking water
• B. The nursing assistant elevates the head of the bed to 60 degrees for a meal
• C. The nursing assistant refills the ice pack placed on the insertion site
• D. The nursing assistant places an extra pillow under the patient's head upon request

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a coronary angiogram, patients need to maintain bed rest and keep the head of the bed at no more than 30 degrees for 3-6 hours, depending on the insertion site. Elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees for a meal could increase the risk of bleeding or complications at the insertion site. Refilling the ice pack placed on the insertion site is appropriate for managing potential swelling or discomfort. Filling the patient's pitcher with ice-cold drinking water is a standard care task. Placing an extra pillow under the patient's head upon request is a comfort measure and does not pose a risk to the patient's recovery.

3. A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?

• A. The patient is in the late stage of dementia.
• B. The patient has a history of bronchitis.
• C. The patient has had suicidal gestures/attempts in the past.
• D. The patient is on beta-blockers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is in the late stage of dementia. In late-stage dementia, individuals may have an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently, which are essential for proper installation and use of a CPAP machine. This makes using a CPAP machine challenging and potentially ineffective for patients in this condition. Choice B, having a history of bronchitis, does not contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. In fact, CPAP therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Choice C, a history of suicidal gestures/attempts, while concerning for the patient's mental health, does not directly contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. Choice D, being on beta-blockers, is not a contraindication for CPAP machine use. Beta-blockers are commonly used medications for various conditions and do not interfere with the use of a CPAP machine.

4. A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the patient to cough every hour
• B. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath
• C. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours
• D. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications. Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.

5. A 36-year-old male patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing.
• B. Administer the HCV vaccine and immune globulin.
• C. Teach the patient about ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment.
• D. Explain that the infection will resolve over a few months.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Genotyping of HCV is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment regimen and guiding therapy decisions. Most patients with acute HCV infection progress to the chronic stage, so it is incorrect to inform the patient that the infection will resolve in a few months. There is no vaccine or immune globulin available for HCV, and ribavirin (Rebetol) is typically used for chronic HCV infection. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize genotyping to assist in treatment planning.

Similar Questions