Nursing Elites

1. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?

• A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
• B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
• C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
• D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.

3. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse closely monitor during acute management of this patient?

• A. Onset of pulmonary edema
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Parkinson's disease type symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the onset of pulmonary edema. In cases of aspirin overdose, metabolic acidosis is a common consequence that can lead to the development of pulmonary edema. Early signs of aspirin poisoning include symptoms like tinnitus, hyperventilation, vomiting, dehydration, and fever. Late signs may manifest as drowsiness, bizarre behavior, unsteady walking, and coma. Aspirin poisoning can cause abnormal breathing that is typically rapid and deep. Pulmonary edema may occur due to increased capillary permeability in the lungs, leading to the leakage of proteins and fluid transudation in renal and pulmonary tissues. Changes in renal tubule permeability can also affect colloid osmotic pressure, potentially contributing to pulmonary edema. Monitoring pulmonary edema is crucial in managing aspirin overdose cases to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because metabolic alkalosis, respiratory alkalosis, and Parkinson's disease type symptoms are not typically associated with aspirin overdose and are not primary concerns in its acute management.

4. A patient with acute dyspnea is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan. Which information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider before the CT?

• A. Allergy to shellfish
• B. Apical pulse of 104
• C. Respiratory rate of 30
• D. Oxygen saturation of 90%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Because iodine-based contrast media is used during a spiral CT, the patient may need to have the CT scan without contrast or be premedicated before injection of the contrast media. The increased pulse, low oxygen saturation, and tachypnea all indicate a need for further assessment or intervention but do not indicate a need to modify the CT procedure.

5. A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?

• A. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago
• B. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day
• C. The patient presents as severely depressed
• D. The patient has a rash and pruritus on his arms and legs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is when the patient states he has been having diarrhea every day. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity. The other options, such as a manic episode, severe depression, or rash and pruritus, are not directly associated with an increased risk of lithium toxicity.

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