NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit’s refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?
- A. Nadolol (Corgard)
- B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
- C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
- D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)
Correct answer: A: Nadolol (Corgard)
Rationale: Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 ºF (15 and 30 ºC) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability. Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.
2. A client with untreatable metastasized cancer tells the nurse, 'I think they made a mistake. I don't think I have cancer. I feel too good to be dying.' Which stage of grief is the client experiencing?
- A. Anger
- B. Denial
- C. Bargaining
- D. Acceptance
Correct answer: Denial
Rationale: The client is experiencing the stage of denial. This is evident as the client is having difficulty accepting the reality of their diagnosis and denies the presence of cancer despite the evidence. During the anger stage, the individual expresses anger about their situation, questioning why it is happening to them. Bargaining involves attempting to negotiate for more time or a different outcome, acknowledging the reality of death but trying to delay it. Acceptance, on the other hand, is characterized by coming to terms with the inevitability of death and preparing for it peacefully. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's disbelief and refusal to accept the diagnosis align with the denial stage of grief.
3. The nurse is collecting data on a child recently diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which question to the mother should elicit data associated with the cause of this disease?
- A. ''Has your child had any nausea or diarrhea?''
- B. ''Have you noticed any rashes on your child?''
- C. ''Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?''
- D. ''Did your child sustain any injuries to the kidney area?''
Correct answer: ''Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?''
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?' Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection is a known cause of glomerulonephritis. In this condition, the child typically becomes ill with streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract, and then after 1 to 2 weeks, symptoms of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis can develop. This question aims to gather crucial information related to a potential trigger for glomerulonephritis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not pertain to a common cause or associated symptom of glomerulonephritis.
4. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
- A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
- B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
- C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
- D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Correct answer: A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
5. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?
- A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
- B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
- C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
- D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.
Correct answer: The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
Rationale: When changing the route of administration from PO to IV, the absorption process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action of the medication and consequently a quicker effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased drug tolerance and higher doses are not typical outcomes of changing the route of administration. Protein binding does not increase with a change to IV administration; rather, it is the bioavailability and onset of action that are affected. Moreover, an increased therapeutic index reduces the risk of drug toxicity, contrary to what is stated in choice D.
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