Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
• B. Periodic crying and irritability.
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.

2. The parents of a 2-year-old child who had an orchiopexy to correct cryptorchidism are provided with discharge instructions by the nurse. Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further instruction?

• A. I'll check his temperature.
• B. I'll give him medication so he'll be comfortable.
• C. I'll check his voiding to be sure there's no problem.
• D. I'll let him decide when to return to his play activities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cryptorchidism is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotal sac. Orchiopexy, a surgical correction, may be required. After surgery, it is crucial to restrict vigorous activities for 2 weeks to promote healing and prevent injury. Allowing the child to decide when to return to play activities may lead to delayed healing and increased risk of injury, as 2-year-olds typically want to be active. Checking the child's temperature, administering analgesics as needed, and monitoring urine output are important postoperative care measures to ensure recovery and detect complications early. Therefore, the statement indicating the need for further instruction is the one related to letting the child decide when to resume play activities.

3. For a 6-year-old child hospitalized with moderate edema and mild hypertension associated with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which one of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate?

• A. Institute seizure precautions
• B. Weigh the child twice per shift
• C. Encourage the child to eat protein-rich foods
• D. Relieve boredom through physical activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Institute seizure precautions. The severity of the acute phase of AGN is variable and unpredictable; therefore, a child with edema, hypertension, and gross hematuria may be subject to complications, and anticipatory preparation such as seizure precautions is needed. Weighing the child twice per shift may be necessary for monitoring fluid balance but is not specifically related to the complications of AGN. Encouraging the child to eat protein-rich foods is important for overall nutrition but does not directly address the potential complications of AGN. Relieving boredom through physical activity is beneficial for overall well-being but is not the priority in this situation where seizure precautions are essential.

4. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?

• A. The tumor is less than 3 cm in size and requires no chemotherapy.
• B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
• C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
• D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed. Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.

5. Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?

• A. Increased anticoagulant use
• B. Increased risk of falls
• C. Brain atrophy
• D. Inconsistent care giving

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.

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