Nursing Elites

1. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?

• A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
• B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
• C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
• D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.

2. The nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected to have glomerulonephritis and expects to note which finding that is associated with this diagnosis?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Brown-colored urine
• C. Low urinary specific gravity
• D. Low blood urea nitrogen level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Gross hematuria resulting in dark, smoky, cola-colored, or brown-colored urine is a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. Hypertension is also common. Blood urea nitrogen levels may be elevated. A moderately elevated to high urinary specific gravity is associated with glomerulonephritis.

3. When asked to describe in layman's terms an overview of the condition called osteomyelitis, what would be the nurse's best response?

• A. Osteomyelitis is a gradual breakdown and weakening of your bones. It's most often age-related.
• B. Osteomyelitis is caused by not having enough Vitamin D, which in turn causes your bones to be softer and demineralized.
• C. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone. It can be caused by bacteria reaching your bone from outside or inside your body.
• D. This is a question that should be directed to your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that can be caused by bacteria reaching the bone either from outside the body (such as through an open fracture) or inside the body (such as through the bloodstream). This response provides a concise and accurate explanation of osteomyelitis, making it the best choice. Choices A and B provide inaccurate information about the condition, attributing it to age-related bone breakdown and Vitamin D deficiency, which are not correct causes of osteomyelitis. Choice D deflects the question instead of providing the patient with a clear explanation, making it an inappropriate response.

4. When orally administering alendronate (Fosamax), a bisphosphonate drug, to a largely bed-bound patient being treated for osteoporosis, what is the most important nursing consideration?

• A. Sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration
• B. Give the patient a small amount of water to drink
• C. Feed the patient soon, at most 10 minutes after administration
• D. Assess the patient for back pain or abdominal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing consideration when administering bisphosphonates like alendronate is to sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration. Bisphosphonates are known to cause esophageal irritation, which can lead to esophagitis. By sitting upright, the patient reduces the time the medication spends in the esophagus, decreasing the risk of irritation and potential adverse effects. Giving the patient water to drink or feeding them immediately after administration can increase the risk of esophageal irritation. Assessing the patient for back pain or abdominal pain is important but not the most critical consideration during drug administration.

5. A thirty-five-year-old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Atherosclerosis
• B. Diabetic nephropathy
• C. Autonomic neuropathy
• D. Somatic neuropathy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is autonomic neuropathy. Autonomic neuropathy affects the autonomic nerves, which control various bodily functions including the bladder. In diabetes, it can lead to bladder paralysis, resulting in symptoms like urgency to urinate and difficulty initiating urination. Atherosclerosis (choice A) is a condition involving the hardening and narrowing of arteries, not directly related to the inability to urinate in this context. Diabetic nephropathy (choice B) primarily affects the kidneys, leading to kidney damage, but does not typically cause urinary retention. Somatic neuropathy (choice D) involves damage to sensory nerves, not the autonomic nerves responsible for bladder control, making it less likely to be the cause of the urinary issue described in the question.

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