NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?
- A. Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate 76 bpm
- C. Urine output 50 ml/hour
- D. Respiratory rate 16 bpm
Correct answer: Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg.' Both digoxin and metoprolol decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol specifically affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure need to be within normal range (HR 60-100 bpm; systolic BP above 100 mm Hg) to safely administer both medications. A blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which could be exacerbated by metoprolol, necessitating immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks related to the administration of these medications.
2. The parents of a child with a hernia are instructed by the nurse on measures to reduce the hernia. Which statement indicates the parents understand the care for their child?
- A. We will encourage our child to cough every few hours on a daily basis.
- B. We will make sure that our child participates in physical activity every day.
- C. We will provide comfort measures to reduce any crying periods by our child.
- D. We will be sure to give our child a Fleet enema every day to prevent constipation.
Correct answer: We will provide comfort measures to reduce any crying periods by our child.
Rationale: The correct answer is providing comfort measures to reduce any crying periods by the child. This can include offering a warm bath, avoiding upright positioning, and using other comfort measures to reduce crying, which can help reduce a hernia. Encouraging coughing or physical activity can increase strain on the hernia. Giving a Fleet enema daily for constipation is not recommended as it can also increase strain on the hernia.
3. Which of the following lists the recommended sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment when preparing to leave a patient's room?
- A. Gown, goggles, mask, gloves, and exit the room.
- B. Gloves, wash hands, remove gown, mask, and goggles.
- C. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.
- D. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.
Correct answer: Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.
Rationale: The correct sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. Gloves should always be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. Following the removal of gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and finally washing hands is recommended. Choice A is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice B is incorrect as the sequence is not in the recommended order. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed before goggles.
4. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts.
- B. Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts.
- C. Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.
- D. Unfortunately, there is really nothing you can do to prevent cataracts, but they are amongst the most easily treated eye conditions.
Correct answer: Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.' This response is the best choice as it covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because while age is a significant factor in cataract development, it is not the only one. Choice B is incorrect as UV light exposure is a risk factor for cataracts but not the most comprehensive response. Choice D is incorrect as there are preventive measures individuals can take to reduce their risk of developing cataracts, such as protecting their eyes from UV light and managing other risk factors.
5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client’s family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?
- A. Oculogyric crisis
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Nystagmus
- D. Dysphagia
Correct answer: Oculogyric crisis
Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.
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