the nurse is assessing an 80 year old male patient which assessment finding would be considered normal
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Which assessment finding would be considered normal?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an 80-year-old male patient, the presence of kyphosis (rounded upper back) and flexion in bilateral knees and hips are considered normal age-related changes. These postural changes are commonly seen in older adults due to structural changes in the spine and joints. Option A is incorrect as aging individuals typically experience a decrease in body weight, not an increase. Option B is also incorrect as there is usually a decrease in subcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, rather than an increase in fat deposits in specific areas. Option D is incorrect because the change in overall body proportion with aging usually involves a shorter trunk and relatively longer extremities, not the other way around. This is because long bones do not shorten with age, leading to this characteristic change in body proportions.

2. A 70-year-old man has a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg in a lying position, 130/80 mm Hg in a sitting position, and 100/60 mm Hg in a standing position. How should the nurse evaluate these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.' Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic pressure of �20 mm Hg or �10 mm Hg drop in diastolic pressure that occurs with a quick change to a standing position. This condition is common in individuals on prolonged bed rest, older adults, those with hypovolemia, or taking specific medications. The blood pressure readings provided in the question (150/90 mm Hg lying, 130/80 mm Hg sitting, and 100/60 mm Hg standing) demonstrate a significant change in blood pressure with position changes, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the readings do not indicate a normal response or blood pressure within normal limits for the patient's age; rather, they suggest the presence of orthostatic hypotension.

3. A client is being admitted to the hospital because of a seizure that occurred at his home. The client has no previous history of seizures. In planning the client's nursing care, which of the following measures is most essential at the time of admission?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most essential measure when admitting a client who had a seizure is to pad the bed with blankets (Option B). This is crucial to prevent injury in case of another seizure. Placing a padded tongue depressor at the head of the bed (Option A) is incorrect as current nursing guidelines advise against putting anything in the client's mouth during a seizure. Informing the client about wearing a medical identification tag (Option C) and teaching the client about seizures (Option D) are important but are more relevant once the cause of the seizure is known. It's crucial to remember that not all seizures are classified as epilepsy.

4. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient laughs due to anxiety during an EKG, it is likely to cause tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This increased heart rate can lead to poor EKG graph quality as the electrical signals from large moving muscles can interfere with data collection from the chest leads. Therefore, in this scenario, the EKG is expected to show tachycardia with poor graph quality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a patient laughing out of anxiety is more likely to result in an increased pulse rate (tachycardia) rather than a decreased pulse rate (bradycardia) or a normal EKG.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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