Nursing Elites

1. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

2. The Rule of Nines is used to:

• A. determine the amount of the body surface that has been burned
• B. assess the level of oxygen saturation in a body that has been burned.
• C. determine the level of tissue damage that has occurred in a burn.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Rule of Nines is used to assess the amount of body surface that has been burned. Most body areas are divided out based on 9%, with the exception of the genitalia, which is only 1%.

3. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

4. When examining an older adult, which technique should the nurse use?

• A. Minimize touching the patient as much as possible.
• B. Attempt to perform the entire physical examination during one visit.
• C. Speak loudly and slowly due to potential hearing deficits in aging adults.
• D. Arrange the sequence of the examination to allow as few position changes as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an older adult, it is crucial to arrange the sequence of the examination to minimize position changes. This helps prevent discomfort and fatigue for the older adult, who may have mobility issues. Option A is incorrect because physical touch is essential when examining older adults, as their other senses may be diminished. Option B is incorrect as it is better to break the examination into multiple visits to ensure thoroughness and comfort. Option C is incorrect because while some older adults may have hearing deficits, it is not appropriate to assume this for all individuals without proper assessment.

5. A physician has ordered that a client must be placed in a high Fowler's position. How does the nurse position this client?

• A. The client is placed face-down
• B. The client lies on his back with his head lower than his feet
• C. The client lies on his back with the knees drawn up toward the chest
• D. The client is sitting with the backrest at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high Fowler's position is a modification of the semi-Fowler's position, in which the client is seated with arms resting at the sides or in the lap. The high Fowler's position requires that the client's head and upper chest are elevated, and the backrest is at a 90-degree angle. This position supports breathing and appropriate chest wall movement, making it easier for the client to breathe. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a high Fowler's position involves the client being in a sitting position with the backrest at a 90-degree angle, not being face-down, lying with the head lower than the feet, or lying on the back with knees drawn up towards the chest.

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