Nursing Elites

1. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: Start prophylactic AZT treatment

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

2. What is the primary purpose of emergency planning?

• A. Comply with the laws of the state.
• B. Comply with the laws of the U.S.
• C. Comply with both state and U.S. laws
• D. Maintain safety

Correct answer: D: Maintain safety

Rationale: The primary purpose of emergency planning is to ensure and maintain the safety of people and the preservation of objects, such as buildings and personal possessions during emergencies or disasters. While compliance with state and federal laws regarding emergency planning is important, the main goal is to prioritize life and safety. Choices A, B, and C focus on legal compliance, which is necessary but secondary to the fundamental objective of safeguarding lives and property in emergency situations.

3. When considering the concepts related to blood pressure, which statement best describes the concept of mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

• A. MAP is the pressure of the arterial pulse.
• B. MAP reflects the stroke volume of the heart.
• C. MAP is the pressure forcing blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle.
• D. MAP is an average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures and reflects tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: C: MAP is the pressure forcing blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle.

Rationale: Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) is the pressure that forces blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle. It is not the pressure of the arterial pulse (Choice A), nor does it directly reflect the stroke volume of the heart (Choice B). While MAP involves systolic and diastolic pressures, it is not simply an average of these two values as diastole lasts longer. Instead, MAP is closer to diastolic pressure plus one third of the pulse pressure. The best description of MAP is that it represents the pressure forcing blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle.

4. When is the best time for the nurse to attempt to elicit the Moro reflex during an infant examination?

• A. When the infant is sleeping
• B. At the end of the examination
• C. Before auscultation of the thorax
• D. At about the middle of the examination

Correct answer: At the end of the examination

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is best elicited at the end of the examination because it can cause the infant to cry. This reflex is triggered by a sudden change in position or loud noise, and it involves the infant's arms extending and then coming back together as if embracing. By eliciting this reflex at the end of the examination, the nurse can observe the infant's response and ensure that the examination is completed without unnecessary distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Moro reflex is typically elicited at the end of the examination to avoid disrupting the assessment process and causing unnecessary discomfort to the infant.

5. During an examination, the nurse notices that a female patient has a round “moon” face, central trunk obesity, and a cervical hump. Her skin is fragile with bruises. The nurse determines that the patient likely has which condition?

• A. Gigantism
• B. Acromegaly
• C. Cushing syndrome
• D. Marfan syndrome

Correct answer: Cushing syndrome

Rationale: Cushing syndrome is characterized by weight gain and edema with central trunk and cervical obesity (buffalo hump) and a round, plethoric face (moon face). Excessive catabolism in Cushing syndrome causes muscle wasting, weakness, thin arms and legs, reduced height, and thin, fragile skin with purple abdominal striae, bruising, and acne. Gigantism is characterized by increased height and weight and delayed sexual development, which are not present in the patient. Acromegaly results from excessive growth hormone secretion in adulthood, leading to bone overgrowth in specific areas like the face, head, hands, and feet. Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and distinct features not seen in this patient. The combination of signs described in the question aligns with the clinical presentation of Cushing syndrome.

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