NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. You are preparing to admit a patient with a seizure disorder. Which of the following actions can you delegate to an LPN/LVN?
- A. Complete admission assessment.
- B. Set up oxygen and suction equipment.
- C. Place a padded tongue blade at the bedside.
- D. Pad the side rails before the patient arrives.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to delegate the task of setting up oxygen and suction equipment to the LPN/LVN. This task falls within their scope of practice and can be safely performed by them. Completing the admission assessment (Choice A) typically requires a higher level of assessment and critical thinking, making it more appropriate for a registered nurse. Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside (Choice C) involves potential airway management, which is a more complex task and should be done by a higher-level provider. Padding the side rails before the patient arrives (Choice D) is a task related to patient safety and should be done by the healthcare team as a whole, not solely delegated to an LPN/LVN.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of platelets to a client. Which of the following actions must the healthcare professional perform before giving the platelets?
- A. Start an IV of 0.9% Normal Saline to administer with the platelets
- B. Ensure the container with the platelets is intact and not damaged
- C. Verify the client's identity using two unique identifiers
- D. Check the client's chart to ensure no contraindications to platelet transfusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering platelets, it is crucial to check the integrity of the container holding the blood product. An intact container ensures the sterility and safety of the platelets, minimizing the risk of contamination or infection. Option A is incorrect as administering platelets typically does not require starting a new IV line unless indicated for the specific patient. Option C is not the priority as verifying the client's identity can be done at any point during the administration process but is not specific to the platelet transfusion itself. Option D, checking the client's chart for antibiotic use, is not directly related to ensuring the safety of the blood product container.
3. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?
- A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
- B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
- C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
- D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.
4. When examining an older adult, which technique should the nurse use?
- A. Minimize touching the patient as much as possible.
- B. Attempt to perform the entire physical examination during one visit.
- C. Speak loudly and slowly due to potential hearing deficits in aging adults.
- D. Arrange the sequence of the examination to allow as few position changes as possible.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When examining an older adult, it is crucial to arrange the sequence of the examination to minimize position changes. This helps prevent discomfort and fatigue for the older adult, who may have mobility issues. Option A is incorrect because physical touch is essential when examining older adults, as their other senses may be diminished. Option B is incorrect as it is better to break the examination into multiple visits to ensure thoroughness and comfort. Option C is incorrect because while some older adults may have hearing deficits, it is not appropriate to assume this for all individuals without proper assessment.
5. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?
- A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
- B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
- C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
- D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.
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