Nursing Elites

1. Which practice will help reduce the risk of a needlestick injury?

• A. Expose the end of the needle only when ready to enter the room for the procedure
• B. Never recap a needle after use
• C. Keep a sharps container nearby where it can be easily accessed
• D. Exchange needles from a central area rather than passing them between workers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce the risk of a needlestick injury, it is essential to keep a sharps container nearby where it can be easily accessed. This practice ensures quick and safe disposal of needles after use, minimizing the chances of accidental needlesticks. Recapping needles should be avoided as it increases the risk of injuries. Passing needles between workers should also be avoided to prevent accidental needle pricks during handovers. Therefore, the best practice to prevent needlestick injuries is to maintain a sharps container nearby for safe and immediate disposal of needles.

2. What procedure examines a portion of the large intestine with an endoscope?

• A. Colposcopy
• B. Sigmoidoscopy
• C. Upper GI
• D. Cardiac catheterization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sigmoidoscopy is the correct answer because it specifically examines the sigmoid colon located in the descending colon using an endoscope inserted through the rectum. This procedure captures video and images of the large intestine's lining, helping in the diagnosis of conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Colposcopy, on the other hand, is a procedure for examining the cervix and vagina, not the large intestine. Upper GI involves capturing images of the esophagus and stomach, focusing on the upper gastrointestinal tract, not the large intestine. Cardiac catheterization is a procedure that involves threading a thin instrument through the femoral artery to the heart, used for cardiac interventions and not related to examining the large intestine.

3. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?

• A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
• B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
• C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
• D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.

4. What is the initial step to take when a patient passes out at the front desk?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Initiate CPR.
• C. Shake the patient and ask if they are okay.
• D. Check for a pulse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial step when a patient passes out at the front desk is to shake the patient gently and ask if they are okay. This step aims to assess the patient's level of responsiveness. Checking for a pulse or initiating CPR should only be done if the patient does not respond to being shaken. Calling 911 can be the next step after assessing the patient's immediate condition and providing necessary assistance.

5. A urine pregnancy test:

• A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
• B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

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