Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an appropriate tension-reduction intervention for a patient who may be escalating toward aggressive behavior?

• A. Asking to speak to someone
• B. Asking to be alone
• C. Listening to music
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above interventions are appropriate tension-reduction techniques for a patient in the ICU. When a patient is escalating toward aggressive behavior, it is crucial to have a range of strategies to help de-escalate the situation. Asking to speak to someone can provide emotional support and an outlet for communication. Asking to be alone can help the patient have space and time to calm down. Listening to music can be soothing and distracting. These interventions, along with additional ones like walking the hallway, watching television, writing in a journal, or requesting a PRN medication, can be helpful. It is essential to involve the patient in developing the care plan to identify triggers and effective tension-reduction techniques. Patients in escalation may not always recognize the need for intervention, so staff must be observant and offer personalized techniques to address the situation effectively.

2. A client had a first-trimester abortion and has been unable to function for 3 months. Which type of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Complex bereavement
• B. Anticipatory
• C. Disenfranchised
• D. Complicated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing disenfranchised grief. Disenfranchised grief refers to grief over a loss that is not socially recognized or acknowledged. In this case, grief after an abortion falls into this category. It can lead to prolonged emotional distress as the loss may not be openly acknowledged or supported by others. Complex bereavement is characterized by dysfunctional grieving that extends beyond 12 months. Anticipatory grief occurs when the loss is expected or predictable, allowing individuals to start the grieving process before the actual loss. Complicated grief is marked by an inability to progress through the grief stages, leading to intense feelings of depression, anger, and emptiness, often coupled with a preoccupation with the deceased.

3. Which source of stress would the nurse anticipate in a 5-year-old client?

• A. Jealousy
• B. Stubbornness
• C. Procrastination
• D. Companionship

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Procrastination, which refers to delaying completing chores or activities, is a common source of stress for 5-year-old clients. At this age, children may start experiencing stress related to the pressure of tasks or expectations. Jealousy and stubbornness are more typical sources of stress for 3- and 4-year-old clients who are still developing social and emotional skills. Companionship, on the other hand, is generally seen as a positive aspect in a child's life and is not typically a source of stress but rather a source of support and comfort.

4. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
• B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
• C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
• D. Lack of menstruation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

5. A woman who had a mastectomy is scheduled for a mastectomy peer support visit arranged by her primary health care provider. What is the purpose of the referral?

• A. To teach arm exercises
• B. To prevent social isolation
• C. To meet her physical needs
• D. To view her surgical incision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The purpose of a mastectomy peer support visit is to prevent social isolation. This visit helps the client maintain her social connections and learn about community resources. Teaching arm exercises and meeting physical needs are tasks for healthcare professionals, not the primary goal of a peer support visit. Viewing the surgical incision is also not the primary purpose of such a visit.

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