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NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. What is the similarity between the stage-crisis theory proposed by Havighurst and the psychosocial development theory formulated by Erikson?
- A. Based on developmental tasks
- B. Incorporate eight stages of development
- C. Based on changes in a person’s thoughts and emotions
- D. Emphasize that a child’s growth is directed by individual gene activity
Correct answer: Based on developmental tasks
Rationale: Both Havighurst's stage-crisis theory and Erikson's psychosocial development theory are grounded in the concept of developmental tasks. They both emphasize that successful completion of specific tasks at various life stages is crucial for healthy development. While Erikson's theory consists of eight stages of psychosocial development, Havighurst's theory comprises six stages. The idea that a child's growth is guided by individual gene activity is attributed to Gesell's theory, not Havighurst or Erikson. The emphasis on changes in a person's thoughts, emotions, and behaviors shaping beliefs about morality aligns with moral development theory, not specifically with Havighurst's or Erikson's theories.
2. Which of the following is part of client teaching regarding antiembolism stockings?
- A. Instruct the client to roll the top portion of the stocking down if it is too long
- B. Stockings are applied with the toes uncovered at the end
- C. Measure for thigh-high stockings from the foot to the knee
- D. Stockings are to be smooth from end to end without wrinkles
Correct answer: Stockings are to be smooth from end to end without wrinkles
Rationale: When educating clients about antiembolism stockings, it is essential to emphasize that the stockings should be smooth from end to end without wrinkles. Wrinkles in the stockings can impede circulation, defeating the purpose of wearing them to prevent blood clot formation. Instructing the client to roll the top portion of the stocking down if it is too long (Choice A) is incorrect as it can create unnecessary pressure points. Stockings should be applied with the toes covered at the end (Choice B) to ensure proper compression. Measuring for thigh-high stockings should be done from the knee to the foot (Choice C) to ensure the correct fit and compression gradient.
3. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?
- A. Dry dressing
- B. Transparent dressing
- C. Composite dressing
- D. Wet to dry dressing
Correct answer: Wet to dry dressing
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.
4. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
- B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
- C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
- D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.
Correct answer: A: Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.
5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
- B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
- C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
- D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom
Correct answer: Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.
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