Nursing Elites

1. How is the secondary use of data from the 2000 census classification system utilized to address disparities in mental health care along racial-ethnic lines?

• A. To provide culturally relevant care to the required ethnic group
• B. To identify all racial and ethnic groups in the United States
• C. To identify why there are disparities in the United States
• D. To determine when and how the health care needs of the ethnic populations are being met

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The census classification system categorizes individuals based on racial and ethnic descriptions. Utilizing this data helps in identifying health disparities and assessing how the health care needs of ethnic populations are being addressed. Option A is incorrect because the primary focus is on analyzing healthcare needs met, not providing care. Option B is incorrect as the census does not encompass every single racial and ethnic group in the United States. Option C is incorrect as the census is not designed to investigate the reasons behind disparities, but rather to quantify and analyze them.

2. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?

• A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
• B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
• C. Massage the client's legs to reduce embolism occurrence.
• D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is beneficial in reducing contractures around joints, maintaining joint mobility, and preventing stiffness in immobile clients. This intervention helps preserve muscle strength and joint function. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because: Option B suggesting decreasing fluid intake to prevent diarrhea is not relevant to preventing complications of immobility and could lead to dehydration; Option C, massaging the client's legs to reduce embolism occurrence, is not a recommended practice as massage can dislodge blood clots and increase the risk of embolism; Option D, turning the client from side to back every shift, is not sufficient as it does not address the need for maintaining joint mobility and preventing contractures in immobile clients.

3. A client comes into the emergency room and asks to see a doctor. He is anxious, visibly upset, and keeps looking behind him to the waiting room. When the nurse asks his chief complaint, he says, 'My roommate is trying to kill me.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response of the nurse?

• A. Just wait here and I will notify security.
• B. I'm going to speak with the physician about getting some medication that may help you.
• C. Why is your roommate trying to kill you?
• D. Have you called the police to report this?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Upon initial assessment of a client who appears anxious and upset, with claims that need further exploration, the nurse's initial response should be to gather more information about the situation. By asking 'Why is your roommate trying to kill you?' the nurse shows empathy while trying to understand the patient's perspective. This open-ended question allows the nurse to assess the situation comprehensively. Options A and D jump to conclusions or suggest actions without understanding the situation. Option B focuses solely on medication without addressing the underlying issue. It is crucial to assess the situation further before taking any action or providing treatment.

4. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?

• A. EEG
• B. EKG
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.

5. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.

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