Nursing Elites

1. The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include?

• A. Options for smoking cessation
• B. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing
• C. Erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk
• D. Computed tomography (CT) screening for lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide to a patient with a significant smoking history is options for smoking cessation. Smoking is the primary cause of lung cancer, making smoking cessation essential in reducing the risk of developing the disease. Annual sputum cytology testing is not a standard screening test for lung cancer; instead, CT scanning is being explored for this purpose. Erlotinib therapy is used in lung cancer treatment but not for preventing tumor risk in individuals without cancer. CT screening for lung cancer is still under investigation and is not primarily aimed at prevention but rather early detection in high-risk individuals.

2. The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse's response?

• A. Electrical energy fields
• B. Spinal column manipulation
• C. Mind-body balance
• D. Exercise of joints

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The focus of the nurse's response should be on spinal column manipulation when discussing chiropractic treatment for illnesses. Chiropractic theory emphasizes that misalignment of the vertebrae can interfere with the transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs, leading to diseases. Manipulation is aimed at reducing such misalignments, known as subluxations. While mind-body balance and exercise of joints are important aspects of holistic health, in the context of chiropractic treatment, the key intervention is spinal column manipulation to address vertebral misalignments. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary focus of chiropractic treatment.

3. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?

• A. Tactile hallucinations
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity
• D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Benztropine (Cogentin) is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices are symptoms of schizophrenia that would typically be addressed by the antipsychotic medication (haloperidol) itself. Tardive dyskinesia, a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, would require discontinuation of the antipsychotic medication rather than administration of benztropine.

4. Elderly patients are more prone to dehydration than younger people because the elderly ___________.

• A. drink more coffee and tea
• B. have more stomach mucus production
• C. have more saliva
• D. have less sense of thirst

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elderly patients are prone to dehydration because they have a lower and diminished sense of thirst. This reduced sensation of thirst makes them less likely to drink an adequate amount of fluids, leading to dehydration. While it is true that elderly individuals may also have changes such as decreased stomach mucus production and saliva production, these factors do not directly contribute to dehydration. Drinking more coffee and tea, as mentioned in choice A, is not a consistent behavior among all elderly individuals and is not a primary reason for their increased risk of dehydration.

5. While caring for a client in labor, a nurse attaches an electronic fetal monitor to the client's abdomen to assess the baby's heart rate. The nurse observes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction and does not return to normal limits until after the contraction is complete. What type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are characterized by the baby's heart rate declining in utero during contractions. The heart rate drops below baseline and stays low until after the contraction ends. Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can compromise fetal oxygenation. This pattern is a non-reassuring sign and requires immediate intervention. Variable decelerations are typically abrupt decreases in heart rate, often associated with cord compression. Early decelerations, on the other hand, mirror the contractions and are considered benign, resulting from fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, indicating a responsive and healthy fetal nervous system.

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