a 39 year old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago which nursing diagnosis is most appr
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.

2. A nurse is asked to perform a task that she believes is outside her scope of practice. What is the appropriate response to this issue?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When faced with a task that a nurse believes may be beyond their scope of practice, it is essential to refer to the state's specific scope of practice standards for nurses. This step is crucial as these standards can vary between states, providing clarity on what tasks are permissible. By reviewing these standards, the nurse can determine if the task falls within their scope of practice. Contacting the state board of nursing licensure to report the offense (Choice A) is premature and should only be considered if there is a serious violation after reviewing the scope of practice. Asking another nurse to perform the task (Choice C) does not address the issue of clarifying the scope of practice. Contacting the house supervisor (Choice D) may be necessary if the nurse cannot determine the appropriateness of the task based on the scope of practice standards.

3. A client is seen in the emergency room as a victim of suspected domestic violence. The nurse's aide brings the client to a center curtained area, gives her a gown to change into, and asks her to wait for the nurse. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse upon arrival?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of domestic violence, it is crucial to provide privacy and a safe environment. Taking the client into a private room allows for a confidential conversation and assessment without compromising the client's safety or dignity. The nurse should prioritize creating a safe space for the client to share information and receive support. Notification of authorities should only occur once a thorough assessment has been conducted to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Option A is incorrect because asking the client to undress should be done with sensitivity and respect for the client's privacy, focusing on assessing injuries rather than visualizing them. Option C is premature as involving the police should be based on a comprehensive assessment and the client's consent. Option D is not the most immediate and direct action required to address the client's immediate needs in a suspected domestic violence situation.

4. A systemic sign of infection is ______________.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a lack of appetite.' When a person experiences a systemic infection, they may exhibit signs that affect the entire body. A lack of appetite is a common systemic sign of infection, along with other symptoms like rapid pulse, fever, and an elevated white blood cell count. Swelling, redness, and heat are more indicative of localized inflammation or infection, rather than systemic involvement.

5. A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.

Similar Questions

Gio told his nurse that the FBI is monitoring and recording his every movement and that microphones have been placed in the unit walls. Which action would be the most therapeutic response?
Which of the following reasons would be legal when considering a patient's medical record?
A client with a new prescription for lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder is being educated by a nurse on early indications of toxicity. The nurse should include which of the following manifestations in the teachings?
What does the 'B' in the SBAR acronym stand for?
Which is a physical, integumentary risk among the elderly population?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses