Nursing Elites

1. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

• A. Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss
• B. Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect
• C. Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage
• D. Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?

• A. Contact the physician immediately
• B. Administer a bolus of 50 cc of D20W through the IV
• C. Administer 10 units of regular insulin
• D. Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.

3. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
• B. Give the client Cogentin
• C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
• D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

4. A client on an acute mental health unit reports hearing voices that are stating, "kill your doctor"?. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy on the unit.
• B. Initiate one-to-one observation of the client.
• C. Focus the client on reality.
• D. Notify the provider of the client's statement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client experiences command hallucinations, such as being told to harm someone, the priority is ensuring the safety of the client and others. Initiating one-to-one observation allows for close monitoring and intervention to prevent harm. Encouraging participation in group therapy may not be appropriate or safe at this time. Focusing the client on reality may not be effective when experiencing hallucinations, and notifying the provider should come after immediate safety measures have been taken.

5. At the beginning of the shift, a nurse receives report for her daily assignment. Which of the following situations should the nurse give first priority?

• A. A diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL
• B. A family member of an elderly client who has questions
• C. A client with COPD with an oxygen saturation of 84%
• D. A client who requires assistance to use the bathroom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing the needs of clients, the nurse must begin with the unstable client or manage conditions that affect airway, breathing, or circulation first. The client with COPD has a condition that affects breathing and is exhibiting decreased oxygen saturation levels; therefore, this client should be the first priority. Option A, the diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL, does not present an immediate threat to airway, breathing, or circulation. Option B, addressing questions from a family member, is important but can be addressed after addressing critical patient needs. Option D, assisting a client to use the bathroom, is a routine task that can be prioritized after addressing urgent medical needs.

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