Nursing Elites

1. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

• A. Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss
• B. Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect
• C. Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage
• D. Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.

2. Sinusitis is caused by:

• A. Bacteria
• B. Fungus
• C. Virus
• D. Any of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sinusitis can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. While bacterial infections are the most common cause, viral or fungal infections can also lead to sinusitis. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Any of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they only represent individual causes of sinusitis, whereas choice D encompasses all possible causes.

3. A nurse is performing an end-of-shift count of narcotics kept in the locked cabinet. The narcotic log states there should be 26 oxycodone pills left, but there are only 24 in the drawer. What is the first action of the nurse?

• A. Perform the count again
• B. Contact the pharmacy to determine if the narcotic log is incorrect
• C. Check with the last nurse to sign out narcotics from the system
• D. Notify the house supervisor that narcotic medications are missing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take in this situation is to perform the count again. This step is crucial to ensure there was no miscount during the initial check. By verifying the count, the nurse can confirm if there is indeed a discrepancy in the number of oxycodone pills. Contacting the pharmacy, checking with the last nurse, or notifying the house supervisor should only be considered after ensuring the count is accurate. It's important to rule out any human error before escalating the issue to others.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an indwelling catheter in a female client. Which of the following positions of the client is most appropriate for this procedure?

• A. Lithotomy position
• B. Prone position
• C. Dorsal recumbent position
• D. High Fowler's position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When preparing to insert an indwelling catheter for a female client, the most appropriate position is the dorsal recumbent position. In this position, the client lies on their back with knees bent. This position allows for easy access to the urethral area for catheter insertion. The lithotomy position, with legs elevated and spread apart, is more invasive and typically used for gynecological exams. The prone position, lying face down, is not suitable for catheter insertion. High Fowler's position, sitting upright at a 90-degree angle, is not ideal for catheter insertion as it does not provide proper access to the perineal area.

5. Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?

• A. A 36-year-old male with a spinal injury
• B. An 86-year-old female with significantly altered mental status
• C. A 58-year-old female with near-syncope
• D. A 41-year-old male with acute deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a 58-year-old female with near-syncope. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg systolic when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients at higher risk include those with syncope or near-syncope, symptomatic hypovolemia, and those prone to falls. The other choices are less likely to present with orthostatic hypotension. A spinal injury, altered mental status, and acute deep vein thrombosis are not directly associated with the immediate need for orthostatic hypotension measurement.

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