a 39 year old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago which nursing diagnosis is most appr
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.

2. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

3. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.

4. Upon admission to the stroke care unit of a rehabilitation center, what is the primary action of the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is admitted to a stroke care unit in a rehabilitation center, the nurse's initial priority is to assess the client. This assessment includes identifying relevant health history data that may impact the client's care. By recognizing the client's current needs and limitations, the nurse can develop a comprehensive understanding of the client's condition. This information is crucial for generating a nursing diagnosis and establishing appropriate care outcomes. While collecting and organizing documents for the medical record, preparing identification bracelets, and securing valuables are important tasks, they are not the primary actions that directly influence the client's immediate care upon admission.

5. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

Similar Questions

You are on the unit and overhear another nurse talking on the phone to a patient's friend who wants to see her patient who is comatose and on a ventilator. Since you cared for that patient yesterday, you know that the patient's significant other, who is also the designated healthcare surrogate (HCS) and has power of attorney (POA), has expressly stated that he wants this person on the list for restricted visitors. The nurse whispers that she'll call him to visit as soon as the significant other has gone home. What should your first response be?
Which of the following conditions may cause an increased respiratory rate?
A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an indwelling catheter in a female client. Which of the following positions of the client is most appropriate for this procedure?
The nurse is discussing the need for early diagnosis and treatment of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) with parents of children suspected of having the condition. Which statement should the nurse include?
Which of the following components is associated with hypertonic dehydration?

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