Nursing Elites

1. When escorting a patient to the operating room on a stretcher, what should you do to prevent the patient from falling?

• A. Ensure the safety belt or strap is secured on the patient while escorting them to the operating room
• B. Use a safety belt or strap on the patient throughout their escort to the operating room
• C. Lower the bed position when moving the patient from the bed to the stretcher
• D. All of the above options are correct

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When escorting a patient to the operating room on a stretcher, it is crucial to secure a safety belt or strap on the patient to prevent falls during the transfer. This safety measure is not considered a restraint but a necessary precaution. Lowering the bed position is not necessary; in fact, the bed should be in a high position to align with the stretcher. Locking the wheels of the stretcher is essential to prevent accidents during patient transfer. Therefore, the correct action to prevent falls while moving a patient to the operating room is to use a safety belt or strap on the patient throughout the escort.

2. Tommy R., your 68-year-old patient, is at risk for falls. He has fallen 3 times in the last month. You should keep Tommy's ______________ in order to prevent him from falling again.

• A. bedside rails up at all times
• B. bed in the low position
• C. call bell within reach
• D. family members in the room at all times

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent falls, it is essential to keep the patient's call bell within reach so they can easily call for help when needed. This allows for timely assistance and can prevent falls. While low beds can reduce the severity of injuries in case of a fall, they do not prevent falls from happening. Having family members in the room at all times is not a realistic or practical solution. Side rails can actually increase the severity of falls as patients may attempt to climb over them, and using side rails as fall prevention is considered a restraint practice that can lead to entrapment and other risks.

3. As a nurse, you have been assigned to take over as charge nurse without any report after the previous charge nurse fell during her shift and was taken to the emergency room. At the end of the shift, you have made the assignments for the next shift's nurses and posted them. As the nurses come in, they begin to complain that the assignments make no sense based on patient acuity. One refuses to take her assignment and threatens to go home. What could you have done to prevent their dissatisfaction?

• A. Reviewed the notes of the previous charge nurse
• B. Tried to contact the previous charge nurse in the emergency room
• C. Collaborated with the nurse manager
• D. Collaborated with the other nurses on your shift

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Collaborating with the other nurses on your shift would have permitted them to provide the most updated information regarding patient status and acuity. Requesting their input into creating assignments would have provided shared governance and assurance that the unit staffing was arranged appropriately. Reviewing the notes of the previous charge nurse might not capture the real-time changes in patient conditions. Trying to contact the previous charge nurse in the emergency room may not be feasible or timely. Collaborating with the nurse manager could be helpful, but involving the nurses directly impacted by the assignments would have been more effective in addressing their concerns and ensuring appropriate patient care.

4. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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