Nursing Elites

1. When escorting a patient to the operating room on a stretcher, what should you do to prevent the patient from falling?

• A. Ensure the safety belt or strap is secured on the patient while escorting them to the operating room
• B. Use a safety belt or strap on the patient throughout their escort to the operating room
• C. Lower the bed position when moving the patient from the bed to the stretcher
• D. All of the above options are correct

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When escorting a patient to the operating room on a stretcher, it is crucial to secure a safety belt or strap on the patient to prevent falls during the transfer. This safety measure is not considered a restraint but a necessary precaution. Lowering the bed position is not necessary; in fact, the bed should be in a high position to align with the stretcher. Locking the wheels of the stretcher is essential to prevent accidents during patient transfer. Therefore, the correct action to prevent falls while moving a patient to the operating room is to use a safety belt or strap on the patient throughout the escort.

2. A nursing unit is implementing a new electronic charting program for the nursing staff to use. Which of the following best describes a disadvantage of using electronic charting?

• A. The information is more likely to be lost or used inappropriately.
• B. Any provider in the unit can have access to the client's medical records.
• C. The system diminishes communication between nurses and providers.
• D. The program may be confusing and difficult to implement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant disadvantage of implementing a new electronic charting program is the potential for complexity and difficulty in implementation. Introducing a new system requires time and education for staff to adapt and use it appropriately. Users may experience confusion as they learn to navigate the new charting techniques, which can impact workflow efficiency and accuracy. Option A is incorrect because electronic charting systems are designed to enhance data security and integrity, reducing the risk of information being lost or misused. Option B is incorrect as access control mechanisms can restrict who can view specific patient records. Option C is incorrect as electronic charting systems often facilitate communication between healthcare providers by providing real-time access to patient information.

3. According to HIPAA, which of the following is considered an individual right for privacy of a client's protected health information?

• A. The right to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices
• B. The right to receive medical bills for care received
• C. The right to change personal health information
• D. An understanding that protected health information will only be used in regards to client treatments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to HIPAA, individuals receiving care at healthcare facilities have rights surrounding their protected health information. One of these rights is to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices, which outlines how their health information will be used and protected. This ensures transparency and allows individuals to understand how their information is handled. The other choices are incorrect because while individuals have the right to access their health information, receive explanations of how it is used, and ensure its confidentiality, receiving medical bills or changing personal health information are not specifically outlined as rights related to the privacy of protected health information.

4. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

• A. Altered tissue perfusion
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
• C. High risk for hemorrhage
• D. Risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.

5. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

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