NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. When escorting a patient to the operating room on a stretcher, what should you do to prevent the patient from falling?
- A. Ensure the safety belt or strap is secured on the patient while escorting them to the operating room
- B. Use a safety belt or strap on the patient throughout their escort to the operating room
- C. Lower the bed position when moving the patient from the bed to the stretcher
- D. All of the above options are correct
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When escorting a patient to the operating room on a stretcher, it is crucial to secure a safety belt or strap on the patient to prevent falls during the transfer. This safety measure is not considered a restraint but a necessary precaution. Lowering the bed position is not necessary; in fact, the bed should be in a high position to align with the stretcher. Locking the wheels of the stretcher is essential to prevent accidents during patient transfer. Therefore, the correct action to prevent falls while moving a patient to the operating room is to use a safety belt or strap on the patient throughout the escort.
2. If a healthcare professional prevents intentional harm from occurring to a patient, which ethical principle is being supported?
- A. Beneficence
- B. Nonmaleficence
- C. Justice
- D. Fidelity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm intentionally. In this scenario, by preventing intentional harm to a patient, the healthcare professional is upholding the principle of nonmaleficence. Beneficence, although important, focuses on doing good and promoting well-being rather than solely preventing harm. Justice relates to fairness and equality in resource distribution, while fidelity involves being faithful and keeping promises, which are not directly applicable to the situation of preventing intentional harm to a patient.
3. A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
- A. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
- B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
- C. Anxiety attacks due to worries about her baby's health.
- D. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.
4. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?
- A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
- B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
- C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
- D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.
5. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?
- A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
- B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
- C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
- D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.
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